Why aren't Book of Mormon populations Jewish?

[_bcspace]

What happened?

Could have been Hybridization.

[_subgenius]

For example:

And also all manner of cattle, of oxen, and cows, and of sheep, and of swine, and of goats, and also many other kinds of animals which were useful for the food of man.

Swine. Always spoken of in the O.T. and N.T. with horror and disgust (Isa. 66:3, 17; Prov. 11:22; 2 Pet. 2:22). The pig was regarded as the type of all unclean beasts. Its flesh was forbidden as food (Lev. 11:7; Deut. 14:8).

Edited to add:
This would fit to "Picnic" thread, too.

it seems that you neglect that history described in Ether was prior to the Mosaic law. So, the dietary restrictions were not existent.

so maybe, not a "perfect" fit....

[_jo1952]

If I recall correctly the groups described as going and setting up in the Americas were Jewish when they set of but weren't Jewish when they got there.
(based on the Book of Mormon text).

What happened?

Hi Drifting!

This is an easy question to answer!!! The book of Ether is the translation done by Moroni of the Jaredites. As described in Ether, the Jaredites started their journey at the time of the Tower of Babel and the confounding of language. This would also help explain why the tablets upon which the Jaredites recorded their history was in a language which the Nephites could not read or understand.

Now, let us look at the Bible for information and do some detective work. The food restrictions were not given until after Abraham, who was born AFTER the Tower of Babel. Remember in Genesis how Abram (he had not yet been renamed "Abraham" by God) served the Lord and His two companions a non-kosher meal when they showed up at Abram's tent in the plains of Mamre while they were on their way to Sodom and Gommorah.

Gen 18:8 And he took butter, and milk, and the calf which he had dressed, and set it before them; and he stood by them under the tree, and they did eat.

It is Jewish (i.e., those of the House of Israel) tradition that you cannot eat dairy and meat at the same meal.

Also, the House of Israel, wherein the food restrictions were set up, was not even known as the House of Israel until Jacob (who was the son of Isaac, who was the son of Abraham) was born. It is Jacob who was given the name Israel by God. For instance, Abraham's first son, Ishmael, was NOT Jewish, which helps place the Jewish nation's beginnings AFTER Ishmael. Abraham was promised by the Lord to be the father of MANY nations....but it is not until Jacob that the nation of the House of Israel was established.

It is not a surprise, therefore, that the Jaredites would not even have known about any food restrictions. In other words, Joseph Smith's translation is absolutely correct.

Love,

jo

[_Themis]

If I recall correctly the groups described as going and setting up in the Americas were Jewish when they set of but weren't Jewish when they got there.
(based on the Book of Mormon text).

What happened?

Hi Drifting!

This is an easy question to answer!!! The book of Ether is the translation done by Moroni of the Jaredites. As described in Ether, the Jaredites started their journey at the time of the Tower of Babel and the confounding of language. This would also help explain why the tablets upon which the Jaredites recorded their history was in a language which the Nephites could not read or understand.

Now, let us look at the Bible for information and do some detective work. The food restrictions were not given until after Abraham, who was born AFTER the Tower of Babel. Remember in Genesis how Abram (he had not yet been renamed "Abraham" by God) served the Lord and His two companions a non-kosher meal when they showed up at Abram's tent in the plains of Mamre while they were on their way to Sodom and Gommorah.

Gen 18:8 And he took butter, and milk, and the calf which he had dressed, and set it before them; and he stood by them under the tree, and they did eat.

It is Jewish (i.e., those of the House of Israel) tradition that you cannot eat dairy and meat at the same meal.

Also, the House of Israel, wherein the food restrictions were set up, was not even known as the House of Israel until Jacob (who was the son of Isaac, who was the son of Abraham) was born. It is Jacob who was given the name Israel by God. For instance, Abraham's first son, Ishmael, was NOT Jewish, which helps place the Jewish nation's beginnings AFTER Ishmael. Abraham was promised by the Lord to be the father of MANY nations....but it is not until Jacob that the nation of the House of Israel was established.

It is not a surprise, therefore, that the Jaredites would not even have known about any food restrictions. In other words, Joseph Smith's translation is absolutely correct.

Love,

jo

Your problem is that the Book of Mormon says the Jaredites were destroyed. We don't see any Jewish influence anywhere, or christian for that matter. The church, and the Book of Mormon support a world wide flood which we know did not happen.

[_jo1952]

Your problem is that the Book of Mormon says the Jaredites were destroyed. We don't see any Jewish influence anywhere, or christian for that matter. The church, and the Book of Mormon support a world wide flood which we know did not happen.

Hi Themis:

Your problem is you aren't even on topic.

Love,

jo

[_Drifting]

If I recall correctly the groups described as going and setting up in the Americas were Jewish when they set of but weren't Jewish when they got there.
(based on the Book of Mormon text).

What happened?

Hi Drifting!

This is an easy question to answer!!! The book of Ether is the translation done by Moroni of the Jaredites. As described in Ether, the Jaredites started their journey at the time of the Tower of Babel and the confounding of language. This would also help explain why the tablets upon which the Jaredites recorded their history was in a language which the Nephites could not read or understand.

Now, let us look at the Bible for information and do some detective work. The food restrictions were not given until after Abraham, who was born AFTER the Tower of Babel. Remember in Genesis how Abram (he had not yet been renamed "Abraham" by God) served the Lord and His two companions a non-kosher meal when they showed up at Abram's tent in the plains of Mamre while they were on their way to Sodom and Gommorah.

Gen 18:8 And he took butter, and milk, and the calf which he had dressed, and set it before them; and he stood by them under the tree, and they did eat.

It is Jewish (i.e., those of the House of Israel) tradition that you cannot eat dairy and meat at the same meal.

Also, the House of Israel, wherein the food restrictions were set up, was not even known as the House of Israel until Jacob (who was the son of Isaac, who was the son of Abraham) was born. It is Jacob who was given the name Israel by God. For instance, Abraham's first son, Ishmael, was NOT Jewish, which helps place the Jewish nation's beginnings AFTER Ishmael. Abraham was promised by the Lord to be the father of MANY nations....but it is not until Jacob that the nation of the House of Israel was established.

It is not a surprise, therefore, that the Jaredites would not even have known about any food restrictions. In other words, Joseph Smith's translation is absolutely correct.

Love,

jo

And the Nephites/Lamanites?

[_Themis]

Your problem is that the Book of Mormon says the Jaredites were destroyed. We don't see any Jewish influence anywhere, or christian for that matter. The church, and the Book of Mormon support a world wide flood which we know did not happen.

Hi Themis:

Your problem is you aren't even on topic.

Love,

jo

LOL Did you even read the OP? Nice try at dodging the issue.

[_Franktalk]

And the Nephites/Lamanites?

This is a different subject. If you wish to open a thread on Lehi and his ancestry you can. The problem is that there is not enough information to bridge to any science (DNA) on an ancestry we don't know. There are plenty of examples of mixed blood in the Bible so we don't know what blood came over when and by whom. One can not make statements that mean anything if the data is not there. You of course may have an opinion but it will only carry the weight of an opinion. Not so much.

[_jo1952]

LOL Did you even read the OP? Nice try at dodging the issue.

Hi Themis:

You do realize that the flood was BEFORE Noah, the Tower of Babel was AFTER Noah, the Jaredites were at the time of the Tower of Babel, and that Abraham, Isaac and Jacob were AFTER the Tower of Babel??

If we were to apply your logic, we would need to be able to figure out where the Mayans came from; and also, what exactly destroyed them in order to use the same set of standards you want to apply to anyone who ever lived and/or was destroyed on the American continents, regardless of whether or not they are mentioned in the Book of Mormon. Where did the Mayans come from; when did they get here, where did they go; what does their DNA (has any DNA been found?) tell us?

You should also be aware that there are many peoples of many nations who have been adopted into the Jewish faith and are considered Jewish by the Jews whose lineage IS Jewish regardless of non-Jewish lineage of the adoptee because the adoptee adopts Jewish belief and traditions. In other words, there are Jews whose bloodlines are not of Jewish origin; there are Jews who started out as Gentiles. Think about it: when a gentile of ANY nation converts to Christ, they are then considered a Christian regardless of their lineage or their bloodline. Same thing with the Jews. A convert's DNA does not change, even though their belief system does. When a Jew converts to Christianity, their DNA does not change either; their nationality remains the same even though their belief system has changed.

The OP asked why aren't Book of Mormon populations Jewish. It was not looking for evidence of human populations. by the way, there IS physical evidence which has been found in ancient mounds and in ancient land formations which indicate Jewish traditions were known in the ancient Americas. Also, some percentages of ancient DNA evidence that has been found in both North AND South America matches some percentages of DNA found in Israel. This is what one would expect to find given the knowledge that among today's Jews there is such a mix of DNA found in ancient and current Israel itself, which mixing has been going on since ancient times as recorded in the Bible.

As a result of all that I have presented, I would offer that the original OP question itself is flawed in logic and in reason. In other words, it makes invalid assumptions because it is asked in ignorance of both Biblical history as well as scientific theory. Therefore, if an atheist had posted the OP, the scientific theory alone would have invalidated the question. If a believer who was anti-LDS had posted the OP, then both the Bible and scientific theory would have invalidated it.

If anyone is stuck on needing physical evidence, a good DVD to watch is "The Lost Civilizations of North America" by NA Discoveries. Even if you are not hooked on finding physical evidence, it is interesting and informative about presenting ancient history (or pre-history as defined by the American government and scientific community of the 19th century) of North America. In fact, one of the source books used in the presentation is available as a free download from Google called "The Mound Builders".

Love,

jo

[_jo1952]

And the Nephites/Lamanites?

Hi Drifting:

Please see my response to Themis.

Love,

jo