Why did God want plural marriages between 1844 and 1890?

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_malkie
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Re: Why did God want plural marriages between 1844 and 1890?

Post by _malkie »

ludwigm wrote:1890 - 1844 = 46

46 YEAR.

According to Abraham 3:4 ( And the Lord said unto me, by the Urim and Thummim, that Kolob was after the manner of the Lord, according to its atimes and seasons in the revolutions thereof; that one revolution was a bday unto the Lord, after his manner of reckoning, it being one thousand cyears according to the time appointed unto that whereon thou standest. This is the reckoning of the Lord’s dtime, according to the reckoning of Kolob.) that 46 year is 1 hour 6 minute 14,4 sec, after the manner of the Lord.

The Lord (whoever he/she/it is) seems to change his mind very frequently.

______________________________________________
by the way
1. The revolution of any celestial/heavenly object has nothing to do with going the time. The people who will reach the Uranus, will not live 84 times more. (For apologists: yes, the Book of Abraham is not a scientific text)
2. The online scriptures work stupid way. The copy-paste operation should not convey the index letters as normal characters. (atimes, bday, cyears, dtime...)
3. Shades could write a two-volume book about the stupid sentences of Book of Abraham (and all other Scriptures).

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_Drifting
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Re: Why did God want plural marriages between 1844 and 1890?

Post by _Drifting »

bcspace wrote:
It doesn't follow that curiosity about it means one wants to practice it. Intellectual honesty here forces us to be logically consistent so if we take Joseph Smith at his word (or the word of others who knew him) that he asked about it, then we must also accept that Joseph Smith balked at doing it and had to have a flaming sword episode.


Is that what he was doing in the barn with Fanny, balking?
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_bcspace
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Re: Why did God want plural marriages between 1844 and 1890?

Post by _bcspace »

Is that what he was doing in the barn with Fanny, balking?


I suppose you'll be giving a referenced quote shortly.
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Re: Why did God want plural marriages between 1844 and 1890?

Post by _SteelHead »

I think the better question is why did god want polygamy practiced pre sealing power restoration in 1836? New and everlasting can not be applied to a pre sealing power polygamous relationship, well the not the everlasting part anyway.
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Re: Why did God want plural marriages between 1844 and 1890?

Post by _Runtu »

Drifting wrote:Is that what he was doing in the barn with Fanny, balking?


I'd like to see some references for the idea that Joseph was reluctant to practice plural marriage. From what I've seen, the only indication that he was reluctant was his story about the angel with a drawn sword, which he repeated to a lot of people. Of course, that's exactly the kind of story you'd tell if you wanted to legitimize your behavior.

And for the record, I don't take Joseph Smith's word for it that he asked God about polygamy. That's in the scriptures, so I'm accepting that the church believes he asked about it.
Last edited by cacheman on Wed Jan 18, 2012 7:48 pm, edited 1 time in total.
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Re: Why did God want plural marriages between 1844 and 1890?

Post by _Buffalo »

Drifting wrote:
bcspace wrote:
It doesn't follow that curiosity about it means one wants to practice it. Intellectual honesty here forces us to be logically consistent so if we take Joseph Smith at his word (or the word of others who knew him) that he asked about it, then we must also accept that Joseph Smith balked at doing it and had to have a flaming sword episode.


Is that what he was doing in the barn with Fanny, balking?


Every time Joseph reluctantly boinked some teenage girl or one of his followers' wives, a bitter tear slid down his cheek.

"Son Ahman, why do you compel me to have sex with every attractive girl and woman who I can convince to let me mount? WHYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYYY???!!!!!"

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http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=nF_lJTGK ... re=related
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Re: Why did God want plural marriages between 1844 and 1890?

Post by _bcspace »

And for the record, I don't take Joseph Smith's word for it that he asked God about polygamy. That's in the scriptures, so I'm accepting that the church believes he asked about it.


But you also seem to be accepting what's not there or not even in history; that he asked because he wanted to. So it's more like this is what you want to believe, not what's actually true.
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Re: Why did God want plural marriages between 1844 and 1890?

Post by _Runtu »

bcspace wrote:But you also seem to be accepting what's not there or not even in history; that he asked because he wanted to. So it's more like this is what you want to believe, not what's actually true.


Nope, just a guess, as that seems like the most logical reason.
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_bcspace
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Re: Why did God want plural marriages between 1844 and 1890?

Post by _bcspace »

Nope, just a guess, as that seems like the most logical reason.


Not a very educated one.
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Re: Why did God want plural marriages between 1844 and 1890?

Post by _Runtu »

bcspace wrote:Not a very educated one.


Given what is known of Joseph Smith's character and personal interests, it's a well-educated guess. Even if his character and interests weren't known, it's still a decent guess, given what is known of human nature.
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