Morley wrote: Yes, it does.
You are obviously not grasping my point.
There was no evidence presented one way or the other.
That isn't what some people are suggesting here. They are essentially saying that no evidence, or the lack of evidence presented one way, is evidence against that one way, or in other words it is evidence for the other.
I say otherwise. I argue that the llack of evidence for the existence of cells in 1665 was not evidence against the existence of cells, but simply a lack of evidence one way or the other.
Evidence only means something when it is considered as part of an argument.
So? What does this have to do with what I am arguing?
You can't say there was no evidence when there is not even a concept.
Are you suggesting there actually was evidence even though there supposedly wasn't even a concept? I am sorry, but you aren't making sense.
Thanks, -Wade Englund-