With regards to your interest, # 1, I addressed it already. You didn’t comment on what I said.
Because you said nothing relevant to my contention with JAK who did not argue as you did:
Everyone in this entire world can argue against Godel’s argument, one doesn’t need credentials to do so. Just as everyone can argue against K. Armstrong.
JAK said (and Marg, do you lick everything JAK says from his palms or don't you?),
And how many books have you had published? What is your particular qualification for passing judgment on the scholarship of Armstrong?
Do you agree with yourself, or do you agree with JAK? Because you don't agree with each other. I'm just trying to hold JAK to his own standards. If the argument had been that CC didn't offer any arguments against Armstrong, I would have just continued on with my lurking without saying anything.
don’t you think it is up to you to explain why you think Godel's ontological argument is not a tautology?
Some of the reason why I don't really want to take on yours and JAK's finer points in critique of Godel. First, neither of you, I don't think, have the foggiest idea of who Godel was or what his contributions to logic were. (hurry JAK, hurry, do 1000 google searches in the next 10 minutes and try and pretend otherwise..). Second, you both make bold and reckless condemnations of Godel neither of you having studied formal logic at all, let alone modal logic which just makes the subject more complicated, JAKs 10000 google searches and quotes on modal logic was a pathetic and silly exercise. And instead of picking lets say, just the wiki article, and reading it carefully and noting the standard responses to Godel, he tried to do his own thinking and tackle the most noteworthy logician in history with his own original insights based on half a day's study of modal logic. Sorry, if I can't help but be condenscending. And finally, NO, it's not my responsibility to argue why Godel's argument ISN"T a tautology. His argument, in formal terms, is clearly stated on wiki. It's up for you and JAK to show why it's a tautology, given that to my knowledge, JAK is the first person to discover this flaw in Godel.
I thought to some extent all deductive arguments were, but whether or not they are called tautological depends on how close or obvious the connection is between premises and conclusion
NO, NO, NO. not all deductive arguments are to some extent "tautologies", why would they be? A deductive argument is either a tautology or it isn't. And Godel is not going to argue a silly tautology. get real.
My question for you Gad: Do you agree with CC? Is logic essential to theology/theological claims?
Yes.
that value derived from logic is dependent upon reliable assumptions.
In science there are scientific natural laws assumed because they hold up under testing and objective evaluation
But formal logic and modal logic are usually devoted to subjects that are philosophical rather than scientific.
In theology the basic assumptions of the supernatural do not hold up to testing and objective evaluation.
Theology covers a lot of different subjects, but remember, a lot of theology came from putting Aristotle's writings into the service of God, notably, natural theology. Not to say Aristotle was right, but he wasn't a blundering idiot. And the "testing" of metaphysics isn't easygoing. Testing for necessity and contingency etc..
After many assumptions, theology may argue some causal link. The problem is that the initial assumptions were truth by assertion. Hence, applying “logic” following faulty assumptions really means we have no logic or we have flawed logic."”
Why woudl the link be "causal"? And aren't all initial assumptions truth by assertion? If they aren't, then they can be broken down into simpler components and hence, they wouldn't be assumptions anymore.
Does the conclusion conclude that a God exists as an actual entity, by actual I mean a thing which exists in reality.
Yes, but "actual entities" in philosophy are slippery. Does "truth" actually exist? Does the number "5" actually exist?
The weakness or problem with the way you are using this modal logic is that it is a game or system which does not have to connect to the actual world but you are using it as if it does connect.
This is always a criticism of logic. And by the way, no one uses formal or modal logic to state arguments in physical sciences or when discussing emperical evidence. It's mostly a tool for philosophy. Most people, including and sometimes especially scientists or engineers, will think tools of philosophy are stupid until they get into questions that contemporary science can't answer. And then these people go on to speculate beyond the bounds of science not realizing they are becoming philosophers, and then these people will usually get it pointed out to them why they are bad philosophers.
If it is used as if it links to the actual world but there in fact is no link, then it's used incorrectly.
Why would modal logic, which is largely used to explore possible worlds, need these solid links to the actual world? Usually those who head to modal logic do so because the study of the "actual world" isn't able to resolve their questions. The links you want are there, but not as dirt samples.
Well that's fine but then one should be clear and honest about the limitations of what an ontological argument regarding a God concept can say. It can not say, it has logical proof of the existence of an actual God.
What is an actual God? Is Aristotle's unmoved mover a God? Why or why not?
Yes but Godel's logic is a closed system. I'm sure JAK appreciates that if one wants to restrict one's reasoning to such a closed reasoning system, it is limited to what information can be derived from it with regards to the actual world we live in.
What is a closed system and an open system? Why are closed systems limited? Can you give an example of a formal proof done in a system that isn't closed?