The King Benjamin/King Mosiah dilemma...
Posted: Mon Jun 06, 2011 8:54 am
In the current publication of the Book of Mormon, Mosiah Chapter 21 the King referenced is Mosiah:
28 And now Limhi was again filled with joy on learning from the mouth of Ammon that king Mosiah had a gift from God, whereby he could interpret such engravings; yea, and Ammon also did rejoice.
Similarly in Ether Chapter 4:
1And the Lord commanded the brother of Jared to go down out of the mount from the presence of the Lord, and write the things which he had seen; and they were forbidden to come unto the children of men until after that he should be lifted up upon the cross; and for this cause did king Mosiah keep them, that they should not come unto the world until after Christ should show himself unto his people.
However, when the Book of Mormon was originally published, both of these passages referenced King Benjamin not King Mosiah. How can that be?
The Book of Mormon is the keystone to the Mormon religion and was translated verbatim by the direct power of God.
Ah, 'scribal error' I hear people cry.
Just how likely is it that a scribe would mistake the word 'Benjamin' for the word 'Mosiah' either in terms of hearing it or transferring it from a written manuscript? Especially given that these are separate passages from separate Books translated at different times?
The 'mistake' was obviously discovered when someone examined closely the chronology of the Book of Mormon and discovered that Benjamin wasn't alive at the time he was supposed to be during these two references, oops!
I have seen the theories put forward by apologists and I'm afraid they don't cut it with me.
Scribal error is a nonsense as an argument in this case.
That the supposed original writers on the gold plates did not know of Benjamin's death and assumed he was still King when they recorded these passages also makes no sense. If they got it wrong then God would have corrected it during the translation.
Unless God didn't want it corrected.
I have not seen any explanation offered by any General Authority of the Church, save it to say (disingenuously in my opinion) that there have been a few grammatical and contextual changes to the Book of Mormon.
Can this error be defended or is it confirmation of the true source for the Book of Mormon?
28 And now Limhi was again filled with joy on learning from the mouth of Ammon that king Mosiah had a gift from God, whereby he could interpret such engravings; yea, and Ammon also did rejoice.
Similarly in Ether Chapter 4:
1And the Lord commanded the brother of Jared to go down out of the mount from the presence of the Lord, and write the things which he had seen; and they were forbidden to come unto the children of men until after that he should be lifted up upon the cross; and for this cause did king Mosiah keep them, that they should not come unto the world until after Christ should show himself unto his people.
However, when the Book of Mormon was originally published, both of these passages referenced King Benjamin not King Mosiah. How can that be?
The Book of Mormon is the keystone to the Mormon religion and was translated verbatim by the direct power of God.
Ah, 'scribal error' I hear people cry.
Just how likely is it that a scribe would mistake the word 'Benjamin' for the word 'Mosiah' either in terms of hearing it or transferring it from a written manuscript? Especially given that these are separate passages from separate Books translated at different times?
The 'mistake' was obviously discovered when someone examined closely the chronology of the Book of Mormon and discovered that Benjamin wasn't alive at the time he was supposed to be during these two references, oops!
I have seen the theories put forward by apologists and I'm afraid they don't cut it with me.
Scribal error is a nonsense as an argument in this case.
That the supposed original writers on the gold plates did not know of Benjamin's death and assumed he was still King when they recorded these passages also makes no sense. If they got it wrong then God would have corrected it during the translation.
Unless God didn't want it corrected.
I have not seen any explanation offered by any General Authority of the Church, save it to say (disingenuously in my opinion) that there have been a few grammatical and contextual changes to the Book of Mormon.
Can this error be defended or is it confirmation of the true source for the Book of Mormon?