Joseph F. Smith's Thoughts on Judas
Posted: Thu Nov 24, 2011 3:22 am
I found this quote from Joseph F. Smith interesting.
If Judas really had known God's power, and had partaken thereof, and did actually "deny the truth" and "defy" that power, "having denied the Holy Spirit after he had received it," and also "denied the Only Begotten," after God had "revealed him" unto him, then there can be no doubt that he "will die the second death. That Judas did partake of all this knowledge—that these great truths had been revealed to him—that he had received the Holy Spirit by the gift of God, and was therefore qualified to commit the unpardonable sin, is not at all clear to me. To my mind it strongly appears that not one of the disciples possessed sufficient light, knowledge nor wisdom, at the time of the crucifixion, for either exaltation or condemnation; for it was afterward that their minds were opened to understand the scriptures, and that they were endowed with power from on high; without which they were only children in knowledge, in comparison to what they afterwards become under the influence of the Spirit.....
But not knowing that Judas did commit the unpardonable sin; nor that he was a "son of perdition without hope" who will die the second death, nor what knowledge he possessed by which he was able to commit so great a sin, I prefer, until I know better, to take the merciful view that he may be numbered among those for whom the blessed Master prayed, "Father, forgive them; for they know not what they do."
(Joseph F. Smith Gospel Doctrine p 433-435)
But if this is true, why would Jesus say "But the Son of Man goeth as it is written of him; but woe unto that man by whom the Son of Man is betrayed! It had been good for that man if he had not been born" (Matt. 26:20, JST; Matt. 26:24 KJV)?
I've never understood this passage.
Is Jesus saying it would have been better for Judas if he never existed?
If he were never born as a spirit child in pre-mortality?
Or if he had never been born and received a body here on earth?
If He's saying he would have been better off if he never existed (or were never born as a spirit child in pre-mortality), how could Joseph F. Smith be right (and how could he ever find mercy)?
If He's saying he'd have been better off not to have been born on earth, wouldn't that mean that his punishment will be worse than Satan's?
Worse than the devil and his angels (who were never born on earth, and never had any bodies)?
And if Joseph F. Smith was right, what could this passage mean?
If Judas really had known God's power, and had partaken thereof, and did actually "deny the truth" and "defy" that power, "having denied the Holy Spirit after he had received it," and also "denied the Only Begotten," after God had "revealed him" unto him, then there can be no doubt that he "will die the second death. That Judas did partake of all this knowledge—that these great truths had been revealed to him—that he had received the Holy Spirit by the gift of God, and was therefore qualified to commit the unpardonable sin, is not at all clear to me. To my mind it strongly appears that not one of the disciples possessed sufficient light, knowledge nor wisdom, at the time of the crucifixion, for either exaltation or condemnation; for it was afterward that their minds were opened to understand the scriptures, and that they were endowed with power from on high; without which they were only children in knowledge, in comparison to what they afterwards become under the influence of the Spirit.....
But not knowing that Judas did commit the unpardonable sin; nor that he was a "son of perdition without hope" who will die the second death, nor what knowledge he possessed by which he was able to commit so great a sin, I prefer, until I know better, to take the merciful view that he may be numbered among those for whom the blessed Master prayed, "Father, forgive them; for they know not what they do."
(Joseph F. Smith Gospel Doctrine p 433-435)
But if this is true, why would Jesus say "But the Son of Man goeth as it is written of him; but woe unto that man by whom the Son of Man is betrayed! It had been good for that man if he had not been born" (Matt. 26:20, JST; Matt. 26:24 KJV)?
I've never understood this passage.
Is Jesus saying it would have been better for Judas if he never existed?
If he were never born as a spirit child in pre-mortality?
Or if he had never been born and received a body here on earth?
If He's saying he would have been better off if he never existed (or were never born as a spirit child in pre-mortality), how could Joseph F. Smith be right (and how could he ever find mercy)?
If He's saying he'd have been better off not to have been born on earth, wouldn't that mean that his punishment will be worse than Satan's?
Worse than the devil and his angels (who were never born on earth, and never had any bodies)?
And if Joseph F. Smith was right, what could this passage mean?