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I've heard critics say that Joseph Smith invented polygamy because he got caught with the family maid (i.e. Fanny Algar), but how could he have the foresight to condemn polygamy with the following loophole (way back in 1830)?

Wherefore, my brethren, hear me, and hearken to the word of the Lord: For there shall not any man among you have save it be one wife; and concubines he shall have none. … For if I will, saith the Lord of Hosts, raise up seed unto me, I will command my people; otherwise they shall hearken unto these things. (Jacob 2:27,30.)

Could he have planed on committing adultery, anticipated getting caught, and provided himself with this excuse even when he was translating the Book of Mormon (or "writing" the Book of Mormon, if your a critic)?

I know Jacob Cochran and the Cochranites were practicing polygamy in another state, but could Joseph have known of this and contemplated having more than one wife as early as 1830?

Anyone?

Anyone?

It's an interesting line of reasoning but difficult to comment on since there are no first or second hand accounts of Joseph's and Fanny's relationship. It is true that the Cochranites were around before the LDS Church was and some of it's early members (from 1832) were former Cochranites.

I take the view that a lot of these early happenings often prepared people to accept the Gospel whether they were Satan's counterfeits (as seems likely with the Cochranites) or the from the inspiration of God (some Protestantism).

I think detractors of the Church would ultimately settle on Joseph Smith having planned it all beforehand and inserted scripture to cover himself in case of problems.

I doubt that Joseph Smith knew about the cohranites when he was "tranlsating" the Book of Mormon. I think he put the "rise up seed" part in because he had read that it had happened in Old Testament times.

It is my belief that polygamy/polyandry came along later even though there were rumours of him being a player back in New York