The Snow Couplet
Posted: Tue Jun 04, 2019 9:41 am
So, this has probably been brought up before on the forums, but I think it will spark lively discussion so I'm bringing it up again. I'm talking of course of Snow's couplet: "As man now is, God once was; as God now is, man may be."
Now, I'm technically still an Elder, though I haven't been in attendance for quite some time. I started with a Protestant / Baptist background, pretty much an Atheist, and reluctantly persuaded that no God existed, the materialistic view was correct, and we're all just atoms waiting to disintegrate. I became involved with the Church in a time and way which while at first made me think it more true, ended up making me think it all false (details are irrelevant). I distinctly remember thinking that so many things were just flat out WRONG because they contradicted a LOT of what I "knew" to be in scripture, and especially this notion of multiplicity of gods? I was told it was all a cult straight from Hell, and frankly, that seemed to make a lot of sense -- at first.
But I'm curious and inquisitive by nature. And I just can't let a matter rest without investigating it. So I started to. And the more I did the more I found something VERY shocking to me -- it not only seemed to hold up, but it seemed to hold up REALLY well -- and I began to wonder if our modern day "mainstream" interpretations were WRONG. I even found strong support that the scripture we have today HAS been altered, and to say that many "plain and precious truths" have been lost wouldn't seem very far fetched.
(As a small example, one can clearly see references to the Divine Council in not only the Old Testament, but in the repeated references to the Elohim ("gods") as being mankind, and in the OLDEST passages -- such as Psalm 82 -- and one can CLEARLY see a strong aversion to accepting the ramifications in the change of Deuteronomy 32:8 to use "sons of Israel" rather than "sons of God". In short, once one dispossesses a bias against it and looks at the underlying source language and not the translations, the idea that we're "elohim" and God is the GREAT Elohim, seems to be VERY plainly taught. Likewise, the idea of premortal existence seems to be plainly referenced by Job 38:7. That these passages are not even teaching these points, but just mentioning them by way of identification, only seems to strengthen the case. Combine this with clear early teaching by Iraneus and others that support the same, and the amount of evidence just piles up to where it becomes very substantial.)
I even recall recently looking into the King Follet discourse and finding that, contrary to what I'd been told and what seemed to be the case on first glance, Joseph Smith presents a rather intriguing argument that Genesis 1:1 has been altered from the original revelation given to Moses, and that his argument has been badly preserved in the record due to a combination of being recorded based on notes and to those who made the recording not understanding well what he was stating. (When this just so HAPPENS to also agree with ancient writings like the Kabbalistic interpretations and the Zohar, it just further strengthens the case.)
So, to get to my point, the concluding point of Snow's couplet seems VERY well supported, and I've in general found that the more I look the more I find that the support of peculiar beliefs of the Church to be at the very least, worthy of serious consideration.
All but that first part: "As man now is, God once was". I can't find a shred of support for this anywhere in scripture. And I recall a rather interesting point from an apologetic that, unlike most apologetics, seemed to actually consider it rather than just immediately cite a verse and move on. His point was that the God of the Bible seems to be completely self-sufficient. He does not give praise or glory to another. He does not rely on the grace of another. In short, it's really difficult to see that he was ever not perfect.
So, while it seems one can, of course, logically deduct from "as God now is, man may be" to "As man now is, God once was", and while it could even be perhaps said to fit into the general tenor of what I've found great support for, I've so far been unable to find anything to lend credence to it. Nor do I find it at all convincing that what was REALLY meant was just that God became Jesus, since that doesn't well support the couplet, what Joseph Smith said, and it wouldn't be a revelation either since that's well accepted and attested. Heck, I've even found more to lend credence to Adam-God than to it (especially if one considers rightly so that God is a title, but that's a matter for another forum post.) When you add to this that the Church today even, while not outright proclaiming it to be heretical, seems to be reluctant to embrace it, it naturally places me in a quandary. Joseph Smith seems to come to it in the King Follet discourse well enough, so it doesn't seem it's just Snow either.
So my question is a simple one: is there anything outside of LDS discourse (so excluding the couplet, excluding the King Follet discourse, etc.) that could lend credence to the idea that God was once a man? Or, alternatively, is there good reason to see the first part as just stating God became Jesus, being incarnated in the flesh?
I can definitely see how, like I said, it supports the general tenor of the goal of the Gospel being exaltation so we can fully fulfill our divine potential, as creative agents, and even how our eventual goal could be to have worlds we are responsible for, even to which we could be Gods ourselves to. I don't actually find any of this necessarily heretical, especially when understood in the right context, but when its coupled with the complete lack of support, it does seem like its one of those that is either a beautiful truth in some profound way, or a damnable lie.
Now, I'm technically still an Elder, though I haven't been in attendance for quite some time. I started with a Protestant / Baptist background, pretty much an Atheist, and reluctantly persuaded that no God existed, the materialistic view was correct, and we're all just atoms waiting to disintegrate. I became involved with the Church in a time and way which while at first made me think it more true, ended up making me think it all false (details are irrelevant). I distinctly remember thinking that so many things were just flat out WRONG because they contradicted a LOT of what I "knew" to be in scripture, and especially this notion of multiplicity of gods? I was told it was all a cult straight from Hell, and frankly, that seemed to make a lot of sense -- at first.
But I'm curious and inquisitive by nature. And I just can't let a matter rest without investigating it. So I started to. And the more I did the more I found something VERY shocking to me -- it not only seemed to hold up, but it seemed to hold up REALLY well -- and I began to wonder if our modern day "mainstream" interpretations were WRONG. I even found strong support that the scripture we have today HAS been altered, and to say that many "plain and precious truths" have been lost wouldn't seem very far fetched.
(As a small example, one can clearly see references to the Divine Council in not only the Old Testament, but in the repeated references to the Elohim ("gods") as being mankind, and in the OLDEST passages -- such as Psalm 82 -- and one can CLEARLY see a strong aversion to accepting the ramifications in the change of Deuteronomy 32:8 to use "sons of Israel" rather than "sons of God". In short, once one dispossesses a bias against it and looks at the underlying source language and not the translations, the idea that we're "elohim" and God is the GREAT Elohim, seems to be VERY plainly taught. Likewise, the idea of premortal existence seems to be plainly referenced by Job 38:7. That these passages are not even teaching these points, but just mentioning them by way of identification, only seems to strengthen the case. Combine this with clear early teaching by Iraneus and others that support the same, and the amount of evidence just piles up to where it becomes very substantial.)
I even recall recently looking into the King Follet discourse and finding that, contrary to what I'd been told and what seemed to be the case on first glance, Joseph Smith presents a rather intriguing argument that Genesis 1:1 has been altered from the original revelation given to Moses, and that his argument has been badly preserved in the record due to a combination of being recorded based on notes and to those who made the recording not understanding well what he was stating. (When this just so HAPPENS to also agree with ancient writings like the Kabbalistic interpretations and the Zohar, it just further strengthens the case.)
So, to get to my point, the concluding point of Snow's couplet seems VERY well supported, and I've in general found that the more I look the more I find that the support of peculiar beliefs of the Church to be at the very least, worthy of serious consideration.
All but that first part: "As man now is, God once was". I can't find a shred of support for this anywhere in scripture. And I recall a rather interesting point from an apologetic that, unlike most apologetics, seemed to actually consider it rather than just immediately cite a verse and move on. His point was that the God of the Bible seems to be completely self-sufficient. He does not give praise or glory to another. He does not rely on the grace of another. In short, it's really difficult to see that he was ever not perfect.
So, while it seems one can, of course, logically deduct from "as God now is, man may be" to "As man now is, God once was", and while it could even be perhaps said to fit into the general tenor of what I've found great support for, I've so far been unable to find anything to lend credence to it. Nor do I find it at all convincing that what was REALLY meant was just that God became Jesus, since that doesn't well support the couplet, what Joseph Smith said, and it wouldn't be a revelation either since that's well accepted and attested. Heck, I've even found more to lend credence to Adam-God than to it (especially if one considers rightly so that God is a title, but that's a matter for another forum post.) When you add to this that the Church today even, while not outright proclaiming it to be heretical, seems to be reluctant to embrace it, it naturally places me in a quandary. Joseph Smith seems to come to it in the King Follet discourse well enough, so it doesn't seem it's just Snow either.
So my question is a simple one: is there anything outside of LDS discourse (so excluding the couplet, excluding the King Follet discourse, etc.) that could lend credence to the idea that God was once a man? Or, alternatively, is there good reason to see the first part as just stating God became Jesus, being incarnated in the flesh?
I can definitely see how, like I said, it supports the general tenor of the goal of the Gospel being exaltation so we can fully fulfill our divine potential, as creative agents, and even how our eventual goal could be to have worlds we are responsible for, even to which we could be Gods ourselves to. I don't actually find any of this necessarily heretical, especially when understood in the right context, but when its coupled with the complete lack of support, it does seem like its one of those that is either a beautiful truth in some profound way, or a damnable lie.