A question about Lehi's Prophecy about Jerusalem

[_sailgirl7]

In the orginal 1830 Book of Mormon- what is now 1 Nephi chapter 10 verses 2 and 3- said this:

2 For behold, it came to pass that after my father had made an end of speaking the words of his dream, and also of exhorting them to all diligence, he spake unto them concerning the Jews:

3 How that after they were destroyed, yea, even that great city of Jerusalem;and that many were carried away captive into a Babylon; that according to the own due time of the Lord, they should return again; yea, even be brought back out of captivity; and after they are brought back out of captivity;to possess again the land of their inheritance.

The way it's written sounds to me like Lehi is saying that Jerusalem was already destroyed when he said this. But this doesn't fit into the timeline.

Now the verses were changed and say this:

2 For behold, it came to pass after my father had made an end of speaking the words of his dream, and also of exhorting them to all diligence, he spake unto them concerning the Jews—
3 That after they should be destroyed, even that great city Jerusalem, and many be carried away captive into Babylon, according to the own due time of the Lord, they should return again, yea, even be brought back out of captivity; and after they should be brought back out of captivity they should possess again the land of their inheritance.

The changes make it seem to me like Lehi is now speaking about a future event. He is still in the wilderness at this point.

The reason I am confused is because in the 1830 version and other versions of what is now 1 Nephi 1:13 it says:
13 and he read, saying,: Wo, wo, unto Jerusalem; for I have seen thine abominations; yea, and many things did my father read concerning Jerusalem--that it should be destroyed, and the inhabitants thereof; many should perish by the sword, and many should be carried away captive into Babylon.

Speaking of a future event. Before he left Jerusalem.

And then in 2 Nephi 25:10 it says:

10 Wherefore, it hath been told them concerning the destruction which should come upon them, immediately after my father left Jerusalem; nevertheless, they hardened their hearts; and according to my prophecy, they have been destroyed, save it be those which are carried away captive into Babylon.

Now speaking of a past event after leaving Jerusalem.

Hopefully I'm not making this more confusing but- I guess my question is why in the 1830 version was 1 Nephi 10:2-3 written like the destruction of Jerusalem was a past event and then changed to be a prophecy . Was it just to correspond better with the rest of the story? Or what am I missing?

What are your thoughts? Thanks.

Edit: P.S. if I'm just reading the orginal verse wrong- let me know-

[_Yoda]

I think the verbs were changed to clarify things more for the reader, rather than to change the meaning. This type of thing is done in translations all the time. It's certainly been done in the Bible.

The original reference to Lehi's dream is past tense, because he was specifically talking about the events as they happened in the dream.

However, the dream was a prophecy of things yet to come.

[_sailgirl7]

I think the verbs were changed to clarify things more for the reader, rather than to change the meaning. This type of thing is done in translations all the time. It's certainly been done in the Bible.

The original reference to Lehi's dream is past tense, because he was specifically talking about the events as they happened in the dream.

However, the dream was a prophecy of things yet to come.

Liz- Thank you! That's a great answer- I think I understand it now. That makes more sense.

Sailgirl7

[_Yoda]

Glad I could help, Sailgirl! :)

Note to Gaz, Cog, and BC----

See, guys? I can be an apologist when I want to be. ;)