David's polygamy: OK or not OK with God?

[Guest]

Hi everyone. New to the board. I recently had a family member convert to Mormonism and have been investigating ever since. So I'll start with a question about polygamy.

I'm having a hard time finding an explanation from anyone about the seemingly contradictory claims about whether David's polygamy was OK with God (D&C 132:38) or not OK with God (Jacob 2:24). Is there an official explanation from the Church about this problem? I've seen how the Church has addressed other problems with polygamy, but I haven't seen any kind of response to this problem.

[_The Nehor]

The explanation given in the manuals I've read is that polygamy was okay when approved. The issue is that David and Solomon both botched it up by taking wives not approved. With David the obvious problem wife was Bathsheba which was basically adultery hidden through murder. There may have been more. Solomon had similar issues.

When it's approved by God, it's okay. When not, not.

[_Dad of a Mormon]

Behold, David and Solomon truly had many wives and concubines, which thing was abominable before me, saith the Lord. Jacob 2:24

Isn't it the "many wives and concubines" that was "abominable"? I don't see anything about approved or disapproved.

(Sorry, I did ask for the official explanation, which I think you gave, but it seems remarkably thin to me. At the very least, shouldn't their rationalization be a bit deeper than that? Is that enough to satisfy a Church scholar from FAIR or FARMS?)

[Guest]

Hi everyone. New to the board. I recently had a family member convert to Mormonism and have been investigating ever since. So I'll start with a question about polygamy.

I'm having a hard time finding an explanation from anyone about the seemingly contradictory claims about whether David's polygamy was OK with God (D&C 132:38) or not OK with God (Jacob 2:24). Is there an official explanation from the Church about this problem? I've seen how the Church has addressed other problems with polygamy, but I haven't seen any kind of response to this problem.

When Joseph Smith had one wife and might have yet been faithful to her, he "translated" the Book of Mormon and in it, David's polygamy was condemned.

Years later, after Joseph Smith had by then had sex with several women other than his wife, Emma, he needed to justify it and thus came D&C sec 132, and voila, god was now okay with David's polygamy.

It all boils down to Joseph Smith's situational ethics, and claims of divining 'translation' and 'revelation' to justify it.

By the way, welcome to the Board, Dad.

[_sock puppet]

(Sorry, I did ask for the official explanation, which I think you gave, but it seems remarkably thin to me. At the very least, shouldn't their rationalization be a bit deeper than that? Is that enough to satisfy a Church scholar from FAIR or FARMS?)

Sadly, yes, it is enough for a Church 'scholar'.

[_Dwight Frye]

Here's FAIR's stab at the problem: http://en.fairmormon.org/Contradiction_between_D%26C_132_and_Jacob_2

Let us know what you think of it, Dad of a Mormon, and welcome to the board!

[_Dad of a Mormon]

Hi everyone. New to the board. I recently had a family member convert to Mormonism and have been investigating ever since. So I'll start with a question about polygamy.

I'm having a hard time finding an explanation from anyone about the seemingly contradictory claims about whether David's polygamy was OK with God (D&C 132:38) or not OK with God (Jacob 2:24). Is there an official explanation from the Church about this problem? I've seen how the Church has addressed other problems with polygamy, but I haven't seen any kind of response to this problem.

When Joseph Smith had one wife and might have yet been faithful to her, he "translated" the Book of Mormon and in it, David's polygamy was condemned.

Years later, after Joseph Smith had by then had sex with several women other than his wife, Emma, he needed to justify it and thus came D&C sec 132, and voila, god was now okay with David's polygamy.

It all boils down to Joseph Smith's situational ethics, and claims of diving 'translation' and 'revelation' to justify it.

By the way, welcome to the Board, Dad.

Yes, that seems the most likely explanation to me too. But this, it would seem to me, is a pretty glaring inconsistency, and I would think that the LDS scholars would at least try to address it somehow, even if it is to just obfuscate the issue. Maybe that is the best explanation they can muster. But I'm curious if there are other explanations out there.

[_Hades]

Yes, that seems the most likely explanation to me too. But this, it would seem to me, is a pretty glaring inconsistency, and I would think that the LDS scholars would at least try to address it somehow, even if it is to just obfuscate the issue. Maybe that is the best explanation they can muster. But I'm curious if there are other explanations out there.

Welcome to Mormonism. It's a world of glaring inconsistencies. So far, you have just scratched the surface.

[_Dad of a Mormon]

Here's FAIR's stab at the problem: http://en.fairmormon.org/Contradiction_between_D%26C_132_and_Jacob_2

Let us know what you think of it, Dad of a Mormon, and welcome to the board!

Let me see if I got this straight:

1) The Book of Mormon passage is similar to this passage in the Bible.
2) Speaking of passages in the Bible, here's other related passages in the Bible that give other reasons for why it was wrong.
3) So it was obviously wrong for the reason stated in the other passage in the Bible.
4) Therefore, there is no contradiction.

I'm impressed with their ability to obfuscate. I'm less impressed with the explanation.

[_sock puppet]

Here's FAIR's stab at the problem: http://en.fairmormon.org/Contradiction_between_D%26C_132_and_Jacob_2

Let us know what you think of it, Dad of a Mormon, and welcome to the board!

Let me see if I got this straight:

1) The Book of Mormon passage is similar to this passage in the Bible.
2) Speaking of passages in the Bible, here's other related passages in the Bible that give other reasons for why it was wrong.
3) So it was obviously wrong for the reason stated in the other passage in the Bible.
4) Therefore, there is no contradiction.

I'm impressed with their ability to obfuscate. I'm less impressed with the explanation.

Dad, you are a quick learner. Some of us here were under the Mormon delusion for decades.