Bokovoy on the warpath again

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_Enuma Elish
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Post by _Enuma Elish »

Ah, now it's 'can do'? You've changed your argument again. Here's what you said before:

Quote:
If the author wants to say a female belonging to the species, he will not use son of man. He will use daughter of man/men which is precisely the form that appears in Genesis 6.


So which is it to be? He 'can' use 'son of man', or he 'will not' use 'son of man'?


He will not use "son of man" if he wishes to refer to “a female belonging to the species” (quoting myself) instead he will use "daughter of man." If an author wishes to refer to “a female belonging to the species” he will not, nor can he refer to the woman as a “son of god.” However, since male is the prior gender, if the author wishes to refer to a mixed group he will use “sons of god.” It’s really not that complicated.

If you had read my previous posts on this (especially my comments on Reiser), you would have read the answers to these questions. The very fact that you seem to think that an ancient Hebrew audience would not have thought of the divine council when they read these words, shows you've simply been skimming my posts.


I know that an ancient audience would have thought of the divine council of deities when reading these texts.

No they didn't, since the Hebrew theology was very different.


Of course it was different on some levels. However, in view of the fact that you now recognize that grammatically the “sons of god” can refer to the gods of the divine council and given the fact that these beings continually act exactly like the gods in other Near Eastern texts, what evidence do you have to support the idea that the authors of texts such as Psalm 82 and Genesis 6 did not intend to refer to the gods of the council?

No they don't act in the same way the deities acted in other ANE texts, and that's the point. Not only that, but despite the availability of the word elohim to describe gods, the divine council scenes in passages such as 1 Kings 22 and Isaiah 6 never refer to the members of the divine council as gods, nor elohim.


Granted, some of these texts do not use the word elohim. However, they will use expression such as “heavenly host” and even “heaven and earth” which in the context of the ancient Near East appear as expressions that specifically refer to the gods. So we have grammatical and contextual evidence to support the mainstream position.

What evidence do you have to suggest otherwise? Clearly if it's complelling you will change the mainstream view.

I am not an Evangelical Christian.


Sorry. Try to read the text through ancient Israelite lenses rather than whatever form of contemporary religious view you espouse. What’s the result?
_dartagnan
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Post by _dartagnan »

I broke my hand this morning, so cut me some slack with any typos,

These recent posts from both you and your cohort have provided further evidence that neither of you possesses the necessary background to understand the arguments, let alone offer a valid critique.


I’m willing to bet my next meal you haven’t the foggiest idea what my argument is. But as is your wont, you boast of expertise instead of actually demonstrating it.

Unfortunately, I simply just don’t have the time to correct all your mistakes.


Unfortunately for you, I haven’t made any; but you already know this. If I had you would have “corrected” them. I know, because you live for this.

In claiming that "son of" is not a mere idiomatic expression but rather a fundamental grammatical construct used to denote the members of a class or guild in all Semitic languages, I claimed (correctly) that the term represents a primary Proto-Semitic paradigm. Therefore, my claim is that the grammatical meaning of "son" in the Semitic languages is not an idiom which refers to an expression whose meaning cannot be deduced from the literal definitions.


The argument was whether or not the phrase could have changed in meaning. Fortigurn mentioned how the phenomenon takes place in Romance languages. When he said,

“You have yet to address the Hebrew. I find it bizarre that you seem to be claiming post-exilic Jews writing in Hebrew or Aramaic used exactly the same grammar as the Ugarit of 500 years earlier. You're also ignoring the wealth of examples I've provided for the Biblical use of the Hebrew 'son of X' idiom.”

You responded,

“Again. It’s not odd. Ugaritic is a Semitic language.” (emphasis mine)

This strongly suggests that you felt that since both are Semitic, then what is true about Ugaritic must be true in the Hebrew. You keep saying that isn’t your argument but whenever pushed to explain, this is essentially what your reasoning boils down to.

He responded, “So what? That's like saying Romanian and Portuguese must share the same idioms because they're both Romance languages.”

You responded, “In addition to the fact that I have many years of formal training in Hebrew, Ugaritic, Akkadian, Northwest Semitics, and Comparative Semitics, I too read French, Spanish, and Portuguese. This is why I disagree. It's not a compelling point.”

So I simply took you to task on this subject by asking you to translate two very simple sentences. You declined, revealing how little you know of Portuguese.

Rather, like estar/etre which means "to be" in Spanish, Portuguese, and French, son as a word that specifically denotes the member of a class or guild is not an idiom.


You are now picking and choosing what you want from Romance languages to prove your point that the “sons of God” phrase always meant the same thing in all Semitic languages. Ben has already acknowledged the fact that the meaning changed, which means it became a non-literal expression, or in other words, an idiomatic expression.

True enough, as an idiom "mão de vaca" would not carry the same meaning in all of the Romance languages, however, once you understand my claim then you will recognize that this point, like most of what you've posted throughout this thread, is entirely irrelevant.


I understand that you insist on circular reasoning that assumes the premise it wants to prove. You assume “sons of God” was never an idiom in Semitic languages, but this assumption is not proved, only asserted. Therefore, you fallaciously maintain that any comparisons with Romance idioms are irrelevant.

What both you and Forti do not understand is that the use of “son” to denote a member of a class or guild is not an idiom, equivalent to the idiomatic Portuguese expression provided in your post.


Of course it isn’t. “Son” is just one word whereas “mão de vaca” is three. But “Sons of God” is in fact an idiomatic expression that eventually referred to angels, as even Ben acknowledges. The question as to when that change took place is an open question, but it is already an established fact that the meaning did change. And for those curious, “mão de vaca” literally means “Hand of a Cow,” but it refers to cheapskates; people who hold money with a tight fist. Of course, “mão” always refers to hand and vaca always refers to cow, just as son always refers to an offspring in Semitic languages. Yet, the phrase “hand of a Cow” refers not to a cow, but rather a human being just as “sons of God” moved from its original meaning and referred to non-gods. There is nothing surprising about this.

Since you declined to translate the other sentence for us, here it is.

“I don’t want anything” in Portuguese literally translates word for word, to mean “I do want something.” The reason for this is that in English we do not use double-negatives. So in Portuguese they would literally say “I don’t want nothing.” Its meaning is completely opposite to the ENglish equivalent,

by the way, I notice you fail to address the numerous corrections I provided you with regards to the actual subject of this thread.
“All knowledge of reality starts from experience and ends in it...Propositions arrived at by purely logical means are completely empty as regards reality." - Albert Einstein
_Enuma Elish
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Post by _Enuma Elish »

Kevin,

Unfortunately for you, I haven’t made any; but you already know this. If I had you would have “corrected” them. I know, because you live for this.


No, Kevin. I really don’t live to correct your mistakes. And I certainly don’t have the time or desire to go through and correct all of them throughout this thread. I’m completely satisfied with the ones I’ve had the interest in correcting thus far. The D&C 121 statement was especially fun. Glad that you could add my observation to your thread several minutes after I posted it here. Given your propensity towards personal attacks which sponsored this very thread, I must admit, that was kind of fun.

The argument was whether or not the phrase could have changed in meaning.


And as I have illustrated, the phrase “son of X’ did not change its meaning. Clearly I’ve posted enough information to help you recognize the legitimacy of this point.

“You have yet to address the Hebrew. I find it bizarre that you seem to be claiming post-exilic Jews writing in Hebrew or Aramaic used exactly the same grammar as the Ugarit of 500 years earlier. You're also ignoring the wealth of examples I've provided for the Biblical use of the Hebrew 'son of X' idiom.”

You responded,

“Again. It’s not odd. Ugaritic is a Semitic language.” (emphasis mine)

This strongly suggests that you felt that since both are Semitic, then what is true about Ugaritic must be true in the Hebrew. You keep saying that isn’t your argument but whenever pushed to explain, this is essentially what your reasoning boils down to.

He responded, “So what? That's like saying Romanian and Portuguese must share the same idioms because they're both Romance languages.”

You responded, “In addition to the fact that I have many years of formal training in Hebrew, Ugaritic, Akkadian, Northwest Semitics, and Comparative Semitics, I too read French, Spanish, and Portuguese. This is why I disagree. It's not a compelling point.”


Sigh, I’m going to try once again to simplify my arguments for you Kevin.

The use of “son of X” to refer to a member of a group, class, or guild is a fundamental grammatical construct attested in all Semitic languages including Hebrew.

Therefore, grammatically speaking “sons of god” can refer to the members of the classification “gods.”

The Bible uses this expression. It can refer to the gods. Now, every time we see these beings performing any sort of action, the description parallels what the gods do in other Near Eastern texts, including the tablets of ancient Ugarit which refer to the gods as “the sons of god.” These are the reasons that scholars make statements such as "there can be no doubt" that the phrase "sons of god" in the Bible refers the gods of the divine council.

The Bible was not produced in some sort of historical vacuum. Therefore, when an Israelite audience heard expressions such as “sons of god,” “heavenly host,” or “heaven and earth,” etc., etc, what would they have assumed?

Moreover, when they read that these beings acted in the very capacity and in the precise ways in which gods behaved in other Near Eastern traditions, including the Neo-Assyrian texts which we know had a direct impact upon the development of Deuteronomy, what would an ancient Israelite audience have thought concerning these passages?

If the intended audience would have thought of the gods of the divine council and the biblical authors did not want their audience to take this view, why would they have used the vocabulary and the depiction connected with the divine council of deities throughout the ancient Near East?

You are now picking and choosing what you want from Romance languages to prove your point that the “sons of God” phrase always meant the same thing in all Semitic languages. Ben has already acknowledged the fact that the meaning changed, which means it became a non-literal expression, or in other words, an idiomatic expression.


You are the one who worships the ground Ben walks on. I certainly don't. I’m not strapped to anything that Ben acknowledges. I have my own views. At one point in time, I accepted the mainstream scholarly perspective that the post exilic biblical authors endorsed a type of radical monotheism. I certainly believe that they were pushing towards this end, hence the switch from “sons of god” to “children of Israel” in Deuteronomy 32:8, but now I’m not convinced that these late biblical authors were nearly as monotheistic as most contemporary Bible based traditions.

I understand that you insist on circular reasoning that assumes the premise it wants to prove. You assume “sons of God” was never an idiom in Semitic languages, but this assumption is not proved, only asserted. Therefore, you fallaciously maintain that any comparisons with Romance idioms are irrelevant.


No, you don’t understand. I’ve stated that “son of X’ denoting a member of a class or guild was never an idiomatic expression, but rather a central grammatical construct in all Semitic languages. Therefore, "sons of God" can grammatical refer to the gods. It’s not circular reasoning. It's a fact.

Of course it isn’t. “Son” is just one word whereas “mão de vaca” is three. But “Sons of God” is in fact an idiomatic expression that eventually referred to angels, as even Ben acknowledges. The question as to when that change took place is an open question, but it is already an established fact that the meaning did change. And for those curious, “mão de vaca” literally means “Hand of a Cow,” but it refers to cheapskates; people who hold money with a tight fist. Of course, “mão” always refers to hand and vaca always refers to cow, just as son always refers to an offspring in Semitic languages. Yet, the phrase “hand of a Cow” refers not to a cow, but rather a human being just as “sons of God” moved from its original meaning and referred to non-gods. There is nothing surprising about this.


I’m sorry, I really have to ask. Are you simply trying to argue against everything I say or are you seriously this dense?

So I simply took you to task on this subject by asking you to translate two very simple sentences. You declined, revealing how little you know of Portuguese.


Contrary to your suggestions, I know Portuguese well enough to have been dreaming in the language after a two year mission. In fact, I know Portuguese well enough to have given a lecture in Portuguese on Hebraisms in the Book of Mormon last year to a Portuguese speaking branch here in the Boston area.

But of course my ability to give a complex grammatical presentation in Portuguese has nothing whatsoever to do with the absolutely validity of my claims.
_Enuma Elish
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Post by _Enuma Elish »

Man, I hate this! Every time I start to feel that I’ve made enough points and am sick of the contentious attitude Kevin “lives for,” I get sucked into making a minor correction and then I’m back into this ridiculous thread.

Must pull away. Must not succumb to the dark side! Must resist correcting Kevin Graham…
_harmony
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Post by _harmony »

Enuma Elish wrote:Man, I hate this! Every time I start to feel that I’ve made enough points and am sick of the contentious attitude Kevin “lives for,” I get sucked into making a minor correction and then I’m back into this ridiculous thread.

Must pull away. Must not succumb to the dark side! Must resist correcting Kevin Graham…


And yet many of us learn from your exchanges. Is that such a bad thing?
_Enuma Elish
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Post by _Enuma Elish »

Hello Harmony,

And yet many of us learn from your exchanges. Is that such a bad thing?


Of course not. And I like many of the critics that post on this board, even when I don't agree with their views. I'm actually quite found of Runtu, Mister Scratch, the Dude, and Dr. Shades (just to name a few). Any one who knows my posting style can attest that I get along well with everyone, including Dan Vogel and Brent Metcalfe both of whom I think quite highly of.

I hate contention.

I like good strong arguments, even when they are directed against my views. But I'll admit that I get frustrated by Kevin's tone and personal attacks (look at the very title of this thread). I've tried to apologize and accept responsiblity in the hopes that things might change, but you and I both know that they won't.


Granted I've dished it right back out at him. But the point is, I don't like doing it and as hard as I try to resist, I keep getting sucked into his style.

Best,

--David
_dartagnan
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Post by _dartagnan »

No, Kevin. I really don’t live to correct your mistakes. And I certainly don’t have the time or desire to go through and correct all of them throughout this thread.


Nobody here is dumb enough to believe that if you really could correct mistakes that you would pass up the opportunity. The fact that you don’t says plenty, as does the fact that you keep asserting there are mistakes without demonstrating them. The main reason you and I have knocked heads over the years is mainly due to your dogmatic declarations that others are “wrong,” without demonstrating it. I have copies of these, and I'm thinking of sharing just so people get get an idea what I am talking about.

I’m completely satisfied with the ones I’ve had the interest in correcting thus far.


Such as? Oh yeah, forgot. You don’t have time to list them. How convenient.

The D&C 121 statement was especially fun. Glad that you could add my observation to your thread several minutes after I posted it here. Given your propensity towards personal attacks which sponsored this very thread, I must admit, that was kind of fun.


Oh, you’re referring to your proof text that was supposed to prove Smith made the council of gods an official doctrine “fifteen years” before his 1844 sermon, even though, as I demonstrated, the revelation was revealed only five years prior (1839), and even more devastating to your argument, wasn’t published 37 years later.

Yes, it certainly was fun for us. Was this supposed to represent one of your finer moments? Of so, then I’m sorry it had to come at an embarrassing price.

And as I have illustrated, the phrase “son of X’ did not change its meaning. Clearly I’ve posted enough information to help you recognize the legitimacy of this point.


We already know for a fact that it did change. Ben acknowledges this as well. The disagreement concerns, when its meaning was changed.

Sigh, I’m going to try once again to simplify my arguments for you Kevin.


You sound just like Richard Abanes… always trying to avoid refutation by claiming to be eternally misunderstood. But you add an arrogant twist, pretending your arguments are too sophisticated for us to comprehend.

The use of “son of X” to refer to a member of a group, class, or guild is a fundamental grammatical construct attested in all Semitic languages including Hebrew.[/quote

You are telling me that “son of God” always refers to a divine being in “all Semitic languages.” But the problem here is that this is not true. King Krt, a distinctly human ruler in the Ugaritic texts, is also described as bn il, “son of God.” But you’re the Ugarit expert so of course you already knew this, right? Well, apparently not.

You may now start picking up what’s left of your toes.

The Bible was not produced in some sort of historical vacuum. Therefore, when an Israelite audience heard expressions such as “sons of god,” “heavenly host,” or “heaven and earth,” etc., etc, what would they have assumed?


Not a historical vacuum, but perhaps a theological one. This is why one’s presuppositions make all the difference. If we assume the biblical references were merely repeats of what was expressed in Ugarit, without any regard for possible theological implications, then naturally the “What is meant at Ugarit was meant in the Old Testament” seems like the only logical conclusion. Liberal scholars tend to approach it this way.

Moreover, when they read that these beings acted in the very capacity and in the precise ways in which gods behaved in other Near Eastern traditions, including the Neo-Assyrian texts which we know had a direct impact upon the development of Deuteronomy, what would an ancient Israelite audience have thought concerning these passages?


Again, you’re mind reading an ancient society without considering the possibility that they understood these phrases within the context of a strict monotheistic paradigm. Or in other words, that they were adapting known phrases within a corrective motif, and not a pandering one. I’m not arguing either way. I am simply asserting its plausibility, and the fact that not all scholars argue your point. Most do, but not all. And yes, we already know the absurd manner in which you hold all conservative scholarship in contempt.

You are the one who worships the ground Ben walks on. I certainly don't.


This is how you respond to my statement that Ben wasn’t too stubborn to concede an obvious point?

Wow.

I’m not strapped to anything that Ben acknowledges.


Nor are you strapped to common sense.

At one point in time, I accepted the mainstream scholarly perspective that the post exilic biblical authors endorsed a type of radical monotheism. I certainly believe that they were pushing towards this end, hence the switch from “sons of god” to “children of Israel” in Deuteronomy 32:8, but now I’m not convinced that these late biblical authors were nearly as monotheistic as most contemporary Bible based traditions.


MAYDAY MAYDAY, Bokovoy just said he disagrees with mainstream scholarship. Funny how the scholarly consensus is the absolute law when it agrees with him, yet it represents error when it doesn’t.

I’ve stated that “son of X’ denoting a member of a class or guild was never an idiomatic expression, but rather a central grammatical construct in all Semitic languages. Therefore, "sons of God" can grammatical refer to the gods. It’s not circular reasoning. It's a fact


Of course it can. Did I ever say it couldn’t? No. Does Brandeis make a habit of passing out Ph.D’s to those who refuse to comprehend what they’ve already decided to argue against?

I’m sorry, I really have to ask. Are you simply trying to argue against everything I say or are you seriously this dense?


I’m not the one professing expertise in a Romance language based on elementary missionary (laugh) knowledge.

In fact, I know Portuguese well enough to have given a lecture in Portuguese on Hebraisms in the Book of Mormon last year to a Portuguese speaking branch here in the Boston area.


Yet, you cannot translate two simple sentences. Amazing how that works.
“All knowledge of reality starts from experience and ends in it...Propositions arrived at by purely logical means are completely empty as regards reality." - Albert Einstein
_Mister Scratch
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Post by _Mister Scratch »

Enuma Elish wrote:Hello Harmony,

And yet many of us learn from your exchanges. Is that such a bad thing?


Of course not. And I like many of the critics that post on this board, even when I don't agree with their views. I'm actually quite found of Runtu, Mister Scratch, the Dude, and Dr. Shades (just to name a few). Any one who knows my posting style can attest that I get along well with everyone, including Dan Vogel and Brent Metcalfe both of whom I think quite highly of.


Well, Dave, as you know, I like you very much, too.

I hate contention.

I like good strong arguments, even when they are directed against my views. But I'll admit that I get frustrated by Kevin's tone and personal attacks (look at the very title of this thread). I've tried to apologize and accept responsiblity in the hopes that things might change, but you and I both know that they won't.


Granted I've dished it right back out at him. But the point is, I don't like doing it and as hard as I try to resist, I keep getting sucked into his style.

Best,

--David


Eh, I don't know. I am just an outside observer as far as most of this material goes---a mere dilettante, if you will---but I can't say that your "Hey, you guys just don't understand me!" or your "Hey, you need to go read this and this and this!" are very persuasive. I once followed up on precisely such a retort (from our mutual friend, Prof. P.) on the subject of Mike Quinn, and found that DCP had grossly distorted his claims. (Prof. P. was claiming that a pair of FROB articles had "utterly dismantled" Quinn's Same-sex Dynamics book, but upon reviewing both articles, it was clear that DCP was exaggerating, to say the least.)
_Enuma Elish
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Post by _Enuma Elish »

Oh, you’re referring to your proof text that was supposed to prove Smith made the council of gods an official doctrine “fifteen years” before his 1844 sermon, even though, as I demonstrated, the revelation was revealed only five years prior (1839), and even more devastating to your argument, wasn’t published 37 years later.

Yes, it certainly was fun for us. Was this supposed to represent one of your finer moments? Of so, then I’m sorry it had to come at an embarrassing price.


It didn’t come with any price. I didn’t use D&C 121 as a proof text that Joseph had made the council of gods an official doctrine fifteen years before his 1844 sermon. I used D&C 121 simply to illustrate the importance of the word “council” within Joseph’s theology. So correcting you came without any price whatsoever.

It was simply fun.

We already know for a fact that it did change. Ben acknowledges this as well. The disagreement concerns, when its meaning was changed.


Oh my Hell! (see you made me swear!) SON OF X DENOTING A MEMBER OF A GROUP, CLASS, OR GUILD HAS NEVER, EVER, EVER, EVER CHANGED. As I illustrated, even in late Aramaic, the fundamental grammatical construct remained the same! In all Semitic languages from the first to the last, it can refer to A MEMBER OF A GROUP, CLASS, OR GUILD. Even Forti now acknowledges that the biblical phrase “sons of God” can grammatically mean the members of the category “gods.”

You sound just like Richard Abanes… always trying to avoid refutation by claiming to be eternally misunderstood. But you add an arrogant twist, pretending your arguments are too sophisticated for us to comprehend.


You do perpetually misunderstand my arguments! At first I thought it was simply because you lacked the proper background. I’ve given enough information now to change my perspective. No matter what I say. You are going to argue against it. You do this with anyone who has advanced training which is why you've made comments such as "degrees in biblical studies don't matter. All anyone needs is a bit of self dedication and a good library!"

You are telling me that “son of God” always refers to a divine being in “all Semitic languages.” But the problem here is that this is not true. King Krt, a distinctly human ruler in the Ugaritic texts, is also described as bn il, “son of God.” But you’re the Ugarit expert so of course you already knew this, right? Well, apparently not.

You may now start picking up what’s left of your toes.


Oh my Heavens!! I never said that “son of God” always refers to a divine being in all Semitic languages. I said that context suggests that it always refers to gods in the Hebrew Bible (as I've illustrated, this is the mainstream view). I've also said that the expression always can refer to a divine being in every Semitic language (and it can grammatically)!! Of course sometimes it’s used quite literally, meaning the literal son of God, or even the literal sons of the gods.

Context will determine the meaning.

But the problem here is that this is not true. King Krt, a distinctly human ruler in the Ugaritic texts, is also described as bn il, “son of God.” But you’re the Ugarit expert so of course you already knew this, right? Well, apparently not.

You may now start picking up what’s left of your toes.


Oh my (fill in the blank).

Why in the word do you believe that Ugaritic kings were “distinctly human”!

I happen to very much accept the well argued views of renowned Ugaritologist Nicholas Wyatt who has written exhaustively on the point that Ugaritic kings were deified! See especially Nicholas Wyatt, “Degrees of Divinity: Some Mythical and Ritual Aspects of West Semitic Kingship,” Ugarit-Forschungen 31:1999 and Nicolas Wyatt, “Interpreting the Creation and Fall Story in Genesis 2-3,” Zeitschrift Fur Dei Alttestamentliche Wissenschaft (1981).

So were Mesopotamian kings, particularly those of the UR III time period. And like Wyatt, I believe that Israelite kings were also seen as gods. So my toes are very much in tack. How are yours!

Not a historical vacuum, but perhaps a theological one.


This is a bunch of (fill in the blank)! There’s no such thing as a theological vacuum. Every facet of human culture is influenced by its surrounding, including religion. Just look at how Mormonism itself, including its theology, has been influenced by its surrounding culture. After all, you’re the one who’s been arguing that Joseph Smith’s views concerning the plurality of gods derived from his cultural surroundings. At least try to be consistent! I've always professed that this has played a part in Joseph's views.

This is why one’s presuppositions make all the difference. If we assume the biblical references were merely repeats of what was expressed in Ugarit, without any regard for possible theological implications, then naturally the “What is meant at Ugarit was meant in the Old Testament” seems like the only logical conclusion. Liberal scholars tend to approach it this way.


No. No one assumes that Israelite theology precisely reflected the views attested in ancient Ugarit. But by all means! Please right up an article presenting all of your “compelling” arguments expressed throughout this thread to the Journal of Biblical Literature so that you can sway the position of main stream scholars.

Again, you’re mind reading an ancient society without considering the possibility that they understood these phrases within the context of a strict monotheistic paradigm.


Of course we (mainstream Biblicists) are mind reading! But our efforts are based upon grammatical and contextual (both internal and external) evidences. What evidence do you have to suggest that these phrases should be interpreted through the lenses of a late radical monotheist?

Or in other words, that they were adapting known phrases within a corrective motif, and not a pandering one. I’m not arguing either way. I am simply asserting its plausibility, and the fact that not all scholars argue your point.


You’re right. But all mainstream scholars do! And as you know, I have little respect for evangelical Biblicists who ignore the grammatical and contextual evidence amassed in recent decades in an effort to read their “post biblical” theology into the text.

Most do, but not all. And yes, we already know the absurd manner in which you hold all conservative scholarship in contempt.


Guilty as charged!

MAYDAY MAYDAY, Bokovoy just said he disagrees with mainstream scholarship. Funny how the scholarly consensus is the absolute law when it agrees with him, yet it represents error when it doesn’t.


Hardly. Until a person understands the arguments raised by mainstream scholarship, he or she is not qualified to raise a proper objection (as illustrated for instance in Forti’s dismissal of David Wright’s forthcoming book as nonsense). Having devoted serious study to the issue, I’m qualified to disagree. I may or may not be right. But I am qualified to aruge the point. Neither you nor Forti fit this category because neither of you has a clue what you’re talking about!

Does Brandeis make a habit of passing out Ph.D’s to those who refuse to comprehend what they’ve already decided to argue against?


Yes. Brandeis is well known for passing out Ph.D’s in Hebrew Bible and the Ancient Near to anyone who can walk through the door which is why the school’s put out a virtual who’s who in the field of biblical studies. You know, this was a real lame thing to say!

I’m not the one professing expertise in a Romance language based on elementary missionary (laugh) knowledge.


I never claimed to be an expert in the Romance languages. I claimed that I had reading abilities in three of them (which I do). So feel free to mock my missionary knowledge all you want!

Yet, you cannot translate two simple sentences. Amazing how that works.


Oh, Kevin, I’m not going to play your silly little competitive games that are totally irrelevant to this thread. Yes. You live in Brazil. Yes, you have a Brazilian wife. Yes, I have no doubt that your Portuguese is better than mine. Congratulations!

Since no Biblical scholarship has come out of Brazil, it really hasn’t proven very useful in my field. But I am grateful for the experiences and knowledge I gained as a missionary, so laugh all you want.
Last edited by Guest on Sun Apr 22, 2007 5:37 am, edited 2 times in total.
_Enuma Elish
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Post by _Enuma Elish »

Eh, I don't know. I am just an outside observer as far as most of this material goes---a mere dilettante, if you will---but I can't say that your "Hey, you guys just don't understand me!" or your "Hey, you need to go read this and this and this!" are very persuasive.


Of course it's not a compelling argument, Mister Scratch, until someone goes and does it. The academic puzzle that has created the mainstream position is very complex with many components, only a few of which have surfaced in this thread.

But truth be told, every one in the field has his or her "academic baby" if you will. This one is mine, which is why I'm perhaps a bit more susceptible to Kevin than normal. And my views which will support my position on many of these issues (some of which will hopefully even change the mainstream approach on certain levels) will not be laid out in full until the dissertation is finished and hopefully the book comes out.

But now, someone please put me out of my misery if I get back on this thread again!

Best,

--David
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