Hi, David,
While interesting and informative, I'm missing how your horsemen example could possibly apply to the Book of Mormon, under any translation theory. Let's look at the two theories, formally opposing, but now the trend seem to be to (conveniently) blend them into one as you have done (ie, he used both, switching back and forth) and their explanatory power in regards to your parash example. This is based on the idea that the Nephites used the same word for "horse" and "horsemen".
1 - Traditional word by word - God looks at the Nephite version of parash. God tells Joseph Smith to translate it as "horse", while knowing it should be "horsemen".
2 - Unexplained process which allows Joseph Smith to be a more proactive translator who makes mistakes - Joseph Smith isn't even looking at the specific words and pulling out an english translation to begin with. So how could Joseph Smith look at "parash" and translate it as "horse" instead of "horsemen"? He doesn't even know the original language to begin with.
Help me understand why you think this "parash" has
any explanatory power in regards to the Book of Mormon horse conundrum.
At a Church conference in 1831, Hyrum Smith invited the Prophet to explain more fully how the Book of Mormon came forth. Joseph Smith responded that “it was not intended to tell the world all the particulars of the coming forth of the Book of Mormon; and…it was not expedient for him to relate these things” (HC 1:220).
Yes, I understand Joseph Smith didn't make comments about the process himself. Does this mean we get to ignore the
friendly comments made by witnesses?
Joseph Smith also was silent on his own practice of polygamy, yet we accept that contemporary witnesses and their records reveal reliable information about that process.
One of the problems I have with the "loose" translation theory is that it essentially strips the text of author meaning. Here's one example that I have used in the past:
If Joseph Smith was utilizing some sort of "loose" process which allowed him to make errors in inserting anachronistic items and ideas in the ancient text, then this can be applied to literally anything within the text. Perhaps Jesus never really did appear to the Nephites, and it was actually the appearance of an ancestoral Mesoamerican god during a blood-letting chant. Joseph Smith simply translated it as "Jesus" and inserted his "Jesus" ideas due to the loose translation process.
Do you get my point? The text is meaningless, except as a Rorschach ink blot test.
But, as I stated in my essay, I am perfectly willing to discuss the Mesoamerican issues using the "loose" translation theory. Unless one embraces fully the loss of any original meaning which I explained above, which no believers do, although it seems logical, then the text still offers enough background information that provides
context which must correspond to ancient Mesoamerica. The text still fails miserably.
I commented here upon what I thought was your somewhat shocking statement that of course the Book of Abraham is not an ancient document, but rather an inspired revelation from a nineteenth century prophet. I believe that this is the only course that holds any hope for those who want to continue to believe the Book of Mormon is "true" in some way.
Of course, it's not going to satisfy everyone, because it is not a solution without its own baggage. (such as Joseph Smith' comments about the origins of the text) But it seems to me that what Book of Mormon apologists are doing now is the old Nibley desperation method of throwing a bunch of spaghetti against the wall and hoping something sticks as a way to buy time.