Sin of Sodom: Homosexuality in the Bible.
Posted: Tue Mar 27, 2007 7:06 pm
On another forum I participate in, we were discussing Homosexuality as found in the Bible.
Time and again, we hear that Sodom and Gahmora were destroyed because they were gay.
The specific example that is always trotted out to "prove" this is the story in Genesis 19, in which two angels visit Lot in Sodom and Lot ends up offering his virgin daughters to a mob that gathers in order to spare the angels being ass-raped.
But are there other interpretations of the information given?
I think there are.
Sodom comes from the Hebrew word "S'dom" which translates as "burnt". Gomorrah comes from "Amorah" which translates into "a ruined heap".
Both appear to be names assigned after the fact, as descriptions.
Also, according to Genesis 18, there were 4 cities that were to be destroyed, not just the two.
Also, who is it that made up the mob in Sodom?
KJV Genesis 19:4 "...the men of the city, even the men of Sodom, compassed the house round, both old and young, all the people from every quarter."
NIV Genesis 19:4 "...All the men from every part of the city of Sodom -- both young and old -- surrounded the house."
Problems that I see with this: Ambiguity of the KJV transation of the hebrew.
According to Gen. 19:4 (as quoted above), the first part says that it is all of the men. The second part clearly states that everyone in the city came.
Now, if you were intending a gay orgy, why would you bring the wife and kids?
Another problem is the Hebrew phrase itself.
The Hebrew phrase used here (anshei ha'ir, anshei S'dom.) can be used in a dual nature.
Possible Meaning 1: "men of the city, even the men of Sodom."
Possible Meaning 2: "the people of the city, the people of Sodom."
Further on, we have the word "Ya'da".
KJV Genesis 19:5 "And they called unto Lot, and said unto him, Where are the men which came in to thee this night? bring them out unto us, that we may know them."
NIV Genesis 19:5 "They called to Lot, 'Where are the men who came to you tonight? Bring them out to us so that we can have sex with them."
Problems with this: First. The hebrew word for "know" is Ya'da. This word appears nearly 1000 times in the Bible. Out of all of these references, in only a dozen (roughly) does Ya'da take on the sexual connotation.
Also, in those dozen or so places, it is quite clear from the subject that they are talking about sex. "A women is pregnant because of the knowing" or "A man and a woman know each other to conceive."
With that fact in mind, it is only in this one instance of Genesis 19 that there is any ambiguity in the meaning, which does leave, I think, several different interpretations.
The fact that Sodom had recently been involved in war and was in a state of high alert (Genesis 14) definetely adds some weight to the interpretation that the people of Sodom wanted to ensure the angels were not spies.
Further problems with the assumption of homosexuality being a problem: In the Bible, it states that part of why the cities were destroyed was because of their refusal to take care of widows and orphans. Now, if all of the men of Sodom were gay (because all of the Men came to Lot's house to rape the angels). . . where did the widows and orphans come from?
If Lot lived in Sodom and knew that all the men were gay, why would he even bother offering his virginal daughters to these men? Their gay, right? As in homosexual butt-seks? What part of "I love Delta Iota Kappa" is hard to understand?
Also, Lot's daughters were engaged to be married to men from Sodom. Why get married to a woman if you are gay?
Can you see why I have a problem with the carte blanche translation of homosexual rape as being the definitive reason for the situation? Do you have an alternate interpretation?
Time and again, we hear that Sodom and Gahmora were destroyed because they were gay.
The specific example that is always trotted out to "prove" this is the story in Genesis 19, in which two angels visit Lot in Sodom and Lot ends up offering his virgin daughters to a mob that gathers in order to spare the angels being ass-raped.
But are there other interpretations of the information given?
I think there are.
Sodom comes from the Hebrew word "S'dom" which translates as "burnt". Gomorrah comes from "Amorah" which translates into "a ruined heap".
Both appear to be names assigned after the fact, as descriptions.
Also, according to Genesis 18, there were 4 cities that were to be destroyed, not just the two.
Also, who is it that made up the mob in Sodom?
KJV Genesis 19:4 "...the men of the city, even the men of Sodom, compassed the house round, both old and young, all the people from every quarter."
NIV Genesis 19:4 "...All the men from every part of the city of Sodom -- both young and old -- surrounded the house."
Problems that I see with this: Ambiguity of the KJV transation of the hebrew.
According to Gen. 19:4 (as quoted above), the first part says that it is all of the men. The second part clearly states that everyone in the city came.
Now, if you were intending a gay orgy, why would you bring the wife and kids?
Another problem is the Hebrew phrase itself.
The Hebrew phrase used here (anshei ha'ir, anshei S'dom.) can be used in a dual nature.
Possible Meaning 1: "men of the city, even the men of Sodom."
Possible Meaning 2: "the people of the city, the people of Sodom."
Further on, we have the word "Ya'da".
KJV Genesis 19:5 "And they called unto Lot, and said unto him, Where are the men which came in to thee this night? bring them out unto us, that we may know them."
NIV Genesis 19:5 "They called to Lot, 'Where are the men who came to you tonight? Bring them out to us so that we can have sex with them."
Problems with this: First. The hebrew word for "know" is Ya'da. This word appears nearly 1000 times in the Bible. Out of all of these references, in only a dozen (roughly) does Ya'da take on the sexual connotation.
Also, in those dozen or so places, it is quite clear from the subject that they are talking about sex. "A women is pregnant because of the knowing" or "A man and a woman know each other to conceive."
With that fact in mind, it is only in this one instance of Genesis 19 that there is any ambiguity in the meaning, which does leave, I think, several different interpretations.
The fact that Sodom had recently been involved in war and was in a state of high alert (Genesis 14) definetely adds some weight to the interpretation that the people of Sodom wanted to ensure the angels were not spies.
Further problems with the assumption of homosexuality being a problem: In the Bible, it states that part of why the cities were destroyed was because of their refusal to take care of widows and orphans. Now, if all of the men of Sodom were gay (because all of the Men came to Lot's house to rape the angels). . . where did the widows and orphans come from?
If Lot lived in Sodom and knew that all the men were gay, why would he even bother offering his virginal daughters to these men? Their gay, right? As in homosexual butt-seks? What part of "I love Delta Iota Kappa" is hard to understand?
Also, Lot's daughters were engaged to be married to men from Sodom. Why get married to a woman if you are gay?
Can you see why I have a problem with the carte blanche translation of homosexual rape as being the definitive reason for the situation? Do you have an alternate interpretation?