You observe:
All you've done (Aquinas) is created a proof based on a personal definition. You've defined God as "all good" You've not proven true God is all good, let alone even proven a god exists who could be all good. So your premises have not been proven true. And your conclusion can not be relied upon.
Right. And Aquinas established nothing. Superb analysis -- that if the major premise is not established, the conclusion is invalid. And, your correct “(Aquinas’) conclusion can not be relied upon.”
The original statement I wrote was this:
If God is all good, then truth must lead to God, since all truth is good. God is all good, therefore, all truth must lead to God.
I later defended this statement to demonstrate that it was logical, it fits the definition of a valid deductive argument, here was the defense I gave:
If in God, all goodness resides (thus to say of an object "A" that it is good, means that it participates in God's goodness in some way) and truth is good, then truth necessarily leads to God, since in God all goodness resides. The goodness of truth itself is found by following true things. Thus, given these explainations, here is an argument:
1. In God all goodness resides
2. all truth is good and
3. Therefore, truth leads to God
This is a valid argument. I challenge Jak or Marg to show that it is not.
Perhaps you both are not familiar with the terms 'logic' and 'argument,' because I know not much has been proven here (i.e. that God exists, that He is all good, etc) the only thing it proves is that if you accept 1 and 2, you are forced to accept 3. Demonstrate to me how it would be possible to accept the truth of 1 and 2, and not 3.
Proof of anything else aside from the above analysis was never my intent. We wouldn't be able to say much about anything if all our listeners demand of every logical statement a proof backed by solid evidence of all fundemental principles (i.e. that God exists, that He is all good, etc.) But in many circumstances, God's existence need not be established, because for many believers this premise has already been established, whether be faith or reason, or both. If I were to claim "this sentence proves that truth leads to God!" I agree, I would have a problem on my hands (because it only proves if 1 and 2, then 3), but that was never my intent. Clearly, if you read the original sentence in context of the original post, my message is plain; those who believe in God and believe that He is all good, need not fear truth! To demand such rigorous proof for every logical statement is ridiculous, we would not be able to say anything logical at all. For example, if a professor were to say:
1. Given Darwin's theory of natural selection, it is clear that all of our human traits are present because they have been genetically selected, passed down, over time, as means to survival of our species in our natural world
2. Love is a human trait
3. Therefore, it is clear that love is present among humans because it has been selected as a means to survival of our species
Nothing wrong with the validity in this argument, it is the soundness of the argument that is debatable. And indeed, there is no way for me to demonstrate that if you had heard this at someone's lecture on evolution, you would not raise your hand and say "excuse me, but you can't make that claim! You haven't established that Darwin's theory of evolution is true! You haven't proven anything!" But why expect proof that God exists and He is good from a Christian, before the Christian can say anything logical based on these beliefs? Doesn't my scientists do the same, with his unproven belief in natural selection?
Of course the professor (in this example) hasn't proven the theory of natural selection! He knows that! He has demonstrated that if you accept premise 1 and 2, you are forced to accept the conclusion 3. If anyone reading this has an adequate education in deductive logic, I would appreciate other explainations to illustrate my point, these two don't seem to get it, maybe someone else can explain better than I. Thanks.