Wade,
Please respond to this analogy:
A medical study testing the effectiveness of a drug on disease X. Research is conducted utilizing one specific drug and one specific population. The scientists share their results.
Mr. Quack decides to "expand" the definitional threads of the study, and declares that the studies support his contention that the specified drug not only works as a treatment for disease X, but also disease Y and Z!!!
You have any problems with that?
Wade replied:
Sure I have a problem with that. Since your innitial analogy backfired, you have desparately resorted now to idiotically comparing descriptions with perscriptions, definitions with drugs, and relatively similar classes of people with types of deseases. In other words, your analogy is fallacious on a number of levels. Surprise, surprise! ;-)
Please demonstrate how my analogy if fallacious.
But, even considering the analogy on its own terms, I would not necessarily deem it problematic on theoretical grounds. Much depends on the nature of the drug as well as the respective deseases. For example, it is not necessarily unreasonable for a scientist to use as a basis for formulating a theory on the benefits of kemotherapy in cases of colon cancer in men and women by using studies of women who used kemotherapy for treating breast cancer.
Now that’s a nice slight of hand, worth of an apologist.