full gospel in every dispensation?

[_Joseph]

Taught in classes is the idea that Adam and posterity had the Gospel in every dispensation.

If so, how come the earlier folk didn't have the Teachings of Jesus rather than the Mosaic law? Seems much simpler to have 'love thy neighbor' rather than a bunch of ritualistic baloney and killing of calf/sheep/tapirs and whatnot.

How could they have the same Gospel if they didn't have the same rules?

[_Zakuska]

Taught in classes is the idea that Adam and posterity had the Gospel in every dispensation.

You forget that Paul cooberates Joseph Smiths teaching.

Heb 4
2 For unto us was the gospel preached, as well as unto them: but the word preached did not profit them, not being mixed with faith in them that heard it.

[_Redefined]

Taught in classes is the idea that Adam and posterity had the Gospel in every dispensation.

You forget that Paul cooberates Joseph Smiths teaching.

Heb 4
2 For unto us was the gospel preached, as well as unto them: but the word preached did not profit them, not being mixed with faith in them that heard it.

Or Joseph Smith corroborates Pauls teachings.

[_Zakuska]

You forget that Paul cooberates Joseph Smiths teaching.

Heb 4
2 For unto us was the gospel preached, as well as unto them: but the word preached did not profit them, not being mixed with faith in them that heard it.

Or Joseph Smith corroborates Pauls teachings.[/quote]And here I thought that everything Joseph Smith said was a lie and Heresy!

[_Redefined]

You forget that Paul cooberates Joseph Smiths teaching.

Heb 4
2 For unto us was the gospel preached, as well as unto them: but the word preached did not profit them, not being mixed with faith in them that heard it.

Or Joseph Smith corroborates Pauls teachings.

And here I thought that everything Joseph Smith said was a lie and Heresy![/quote]

Hi Zak, you don't come here often. I haven't seen you in ages it seems! :)

[_Zakuska]

Hi Zak, you don't come here often. I haven't seen you in ages it seems! :)

[/quote]

Hello,
I took about a 6 month hiates from ALL the boards so I could get some lagging projects done around the house. Just getting back into it.

[_just me]

Well, the Law of Moses was supposedly a lower law given more as a strict teacher to make the people beg for mercy....well, the way I understand the teachings of Joseph Smith.

Before the LoM was given Joseph Smith teaches that the people (or at least someone-the Patriarchs) did have the gospel of Jesus Christ. Animal sacrifice is actually a rite of the priesthood and will be reinstated in the temple someday....at least that is what Joseph Smith invisioned and perhaps he of BY actually performed those rites a time or two.

Now, this really confuses me about the Book of Mormon. The Book of Mormon says that the Nephites/Lehites had to remain under the LoM until Christ finished his earthly ministry. However, this just doesn't make sense in light of pre-LoM peoples supposedly living only the gospel of Jesus (which appears to include animal sacrifices AND baptism). Why wouldn't they just NOT be bound to the LoM and just go with the laws Abraham lived under-or Adam?
What makes it all the more confusing is that we KNOW they were not living all 613 LoM's anyway.

One more thing that is confusing is that early church leaders preached certain LoM's as still being important or intact.

I think Joseph Smith et al were really trying to address some of these concerns or things that might be perceived as unfair/unjust when they came up with some of the doctrine/theology they did.

[Guest]

a

[_sleepyhead]

If so, how come the earlier folk didn't have the Teachings of Jesus rather than the Mosaic law? Seems much simpler to have 'love thy neighbor' rather than a bunch of ritualistic baloney and killing of calf/sheep/tapirs and whatnot.

While offerings were a part of the Mosaic law, it also involves a code of conduct that is unmatched by any other religious or legal establishment, which would include both Jesus and Joseph smith.

[_The Nehor]

Taught in classes is the idea that Adam and posterity had the Gospel in every dispensation.

Yes, though not necessarily the fulness that this dispensation will receive before the end.

If so, how come the earlier folk didn't have the Teachings of Jesus rather than the Mosaic law?

Read the story of the state of the Israelites when Moses was trying to teach them. Read Deuteronomy for his opinion of their capacity to obey.

Seems much simpler to have 'love thy neighbor' rather than a bunch of ritualistic baloney and killing of calf/sheep/tapirs and whatnot.

Your ignorance is unsurprising but I will explain for you. When Jesus was asked about the most important commandment in the Torah he then quoted the Torah to answer when he gave the most important law and the next most important one:

"And thou shalt love the LORD thy God with all thine heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy might."

Deuteronomy 6:5

"Thou shalt not avenge, nor bear any grudge against the children of thy people, but thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself: I am the LORD."
-Leviticus 19:18

So you see those laws were in the Law of Moses. I would encourage you to sit down and the read the Law of Moses so you actually know what it says before you proceed with your drive-by dumbassery.

How could they have the same Gospel if they didn't have the same rules?

The Gospel is not the 'rules'. I'm beginning to doubt that you are actually an apostate. You don't even know what you apostasized from making apostasy impossible.