Uncle Dale wrote:GlennThigpen wrote:...The Black Hole
...
1. The
Smith-alone crowd says that Joseph Smith wrote the
Book of Mormon text, all by himself -- thinking up its
contents, vocabulary, phraseology, etc., as he went along.
2. The
Mormons say that ancient American Nephites wrote it.
3. The
Smith+helpers crowd says that multiple sources went
into the text, with Smith acting as the final editor.
Which of those three theories best explains the following? --
"the Lord hath said... that the righteous should
sit down in his kingdom,
to go no more out..." (Amulek -- Oliver Cowdery? -- Alma 34)
"O how do I delight... to think of
rest in God
in his kingdom --
of being in a holy heaven, where pain and sin never shall enter --
to go no more out..."
"Memoirs of the Rev. Timothy Pitkin"
Connecticut Evangelical MagazineVolume 5 (1812) p. 342
?????
UD
Let's review the possibilities here -- If ancient American Nephites wrote it,
then the tenets expressed must have somehow been important to the
Nephite prophets. They expressed a gathering and final rest precept that
was already resident in the Israelite religion, but did so in words that easily
translated into the expressions we see printed in the Book of Mormon.
But, if that was indeed the case, how is it that such expressions end up on
the tongue of Joseph Smith, Jr.? Was he supplying an exact, literal
translation of ancient Nephite (or Nephite Egyptian, or Nephite Hebrew)?
If so, then why do the words -- their very spelling, order and inner relationship
-- duplicate 19th century expressions provided by Rev. Pitkin and others?
Can the entire situation be explained WITHOUT resorting to Nephites?
Would we expect Sandra Tanner or Dan Vogel to call in Nephite explanations
at this point? I sincerely doubt it.
A second possibility is that the Book of Mormon was composed by one or more
early 19th century American writers who gathered together ideas, vocabulary
and phraseology from a number of different sources, including the KJV Bible.
But the expression we have been examining was not taken directly from the
Bible -- nor does it exactly duplicate the prophetic tenets given in Revelation.
The two-part expression was derived from religious phraseology that was in
public circulation during the late 18th and early 19th century. Nephites did
not join those word-strings together -- American religious writers did that.
For me, at least, it is far, far too improbable to assume that Nephites first
joined together those ideas, using that phraseology, and later the writer
of the Book of Revelation happened to independently come up with half of
the expression (just the latter part, and not exactly the same wording).
No -- Nephites did not join those phrases -- and John the Revelator did not
copy half of the "Nephite" expression.
We have no need to resort to Solomon Spalding at this point. Alma 32-33-34
is very much unlike his writing. He did not compose the instruction given by
Alma and Amulek. If Matt Jockers has any reliable evidence to offer, then
Mr. Spalding first of all composed a narrative including Alma 31 and Alma 35,
and the Smith-Cowdery team inserted the Alma-Amulek material into it, as
comprising what we now call Alma 32-33-34.
The question, then, is -- "Did Cowdery write the inserted text? or Did Smith
write the inserted text?" No need to ask if Spalding did it -- He did not.
If Smith-alone composed the phraseology, then the Spalding proponents may
have to concede a defeat here. If Cowdery composed Alma 32-33-34, then
we must acknowledge that there was a conspiracy underfoot, and we really
ought to investigate to see how far that authorship conspiracy extended. Did
it include Sidney Rigdon? And, if it did, can we identify Spalding material in the
text supplied by Mr. Rigdon.
Is anybody out there interested in this investigation -- other than just to
condemn it as an assault upon their faith-promoting Nephite beliefs?
UD