We could simply conclude that Joe Smith was a fraud, liar, charlatan, con man, knave, and criminal -- and bypass any of his alibis.
Sure, but I was asking Ben what the solution is from his point of view. I don't think Ben ultimately wants us to conclude that.
I am asking what is Ben's solution to the very real problem that no evidence exists for reformed Egyptian. How does he propose we should best move from the position in which we now find ourselves to his?
You wrote:
A. It was composed, as the book itself claims, by ancient Americans
B. It was written by the man who in 1830 called himself its "author"
C. It was partly written by that "author," from multiple modern sources
And Ben complained that:
Your option A is still facetious Dale - because in the context of examining particular words and phrases, in English no less, whatever ancient American author there might have been certainly didn't write in English. And so for us to be comparing words and phrases, you have to include the notion that it was allegedly translated in 1830 in some fashion, and that the translation process is the process that results in the choice of English words and phrases that are found in the book. But yet, in your arguments here in this thread on that topic, you repeatedly impute the English phrasing and verbiage to the ancient American author and not to the translator. So, I don't accept your list of three simple options - because you are not merely presenting three simple options. And you are not seriously accepting Joseph Smith's version of events or presenting them as one of the options here.
So I would like to know what solution he proposes to solve that problem and start us moving toward an understanding of the Book of Mormon translation as he understands it to have occurred.