Dan:
If you can’t see the fallacy in your argumentation, I don’t see the need to carry on this way with you. We already know Knight was in Colesville and the Bible was used in Fayette.
You
know, as a matter of historical fact, that the Bible was used in Fayette? That's news to me. What do you base that assertion on? Did someone mention it? Or this is simply conjecture on your part?
You can’t hang your whole argument on one quote. You have to consider all the evidence and take into consideration the historical situation surrounding the statement. But I’m not going to give you a crash course in historiography and logic. You would have a case if you could reasonably expect Knight to have known about the Bible use. I feel that I’m explaining the obvious, and I can’t believe you can’t see these things yourself. Embarrassing is the word that comes to mind.
I see. So in order to avoid embarrassment I need to ignore the fact that Knight states that "the whole" was translated through the urim and thummim and makes no mention of a Bible being used, and in so stating
does not contradict any of the other witnesses in the slightest, and I should simply accept that one was used anyway because Dan thinks that was the case.
Of course, the
irony here is that I also think a Bible was used--but then, I'm not the one hanging on every word of the Book of Mormon witnesses. The point of contention is simply Knight's assertion that
the whole was translated with the urim and thummim. And of course the other point of contention is how trustworthy these witnesses are in the first place. You want me to believe that they are pretty trustworthy--except in cases where you know better than they do. Needless to say, when you disagree with witnesses you otherwise place a lot of confidence in (even with the excuse that you know more than they do), it doesn't do much to instill confidence in their reliability as witnesses.
You’re not listening. I’ve already explained that the apparent contradictions in Whitmer’s interviews are due to different interviewers. Your third quote from my book is actually not a contradiction. Did you really read my essay?
Yes, and I obviously have the book right now, from which I am quoting. I am simply amazed that you ascribe the "apparent contradictions in Whitmer’s interviews" to "different interviewers" rather than simply agreeing that they are contradictions. I think that fact alone speaks for itself.
If the "apparent contradictions" are only apparent, then:
1. Did Whitmer handle the plates?
2. What exactly did the angel tell Whitmer?
I don’t know that minor discrepancies in the angel story from different interviewers over a long time span are Whitmer’s fault. As witnesses go Whitmer is very credible. Certainly there is no reason to call him (or any of his supporting witnesses) a liar.
And you don't know that the contradictions
don't come from Whitmer. You're simply giving him the benefit of the doubt,
despite the clear contradictions--which I now notice you are labeling "minor discrepancies." One would think if Whitmer actually had an experience so amazing, he would be able to keep his statements free from contradictions. It's interesting though, that he apparently felt comfortable leaving it up to future sympathetic historians to attempt to sort it all out.
And you're getting hung up on the term "liar." I don't know whether Whitmer was a liar or not. He might have been. Maybe he was just forgetful. I suspect he wouldn't think of it as intentionally lying, but you flat out acknowledge his religious enthusiasm stating that Whitmer "was in an emotional, suggestible state at the time of his vision." - p 95 I don't know what Whitmer may or may not have seen in his emotional, suggestible mind, but the contradictions exist one way or another and you are simply attempting to downplay them by putting the blame on the interviewers.
It is becoming apparent that for this discussion, you want to take Whitmer's word as authoritative on the question of whether a Spalding ms was used or not, and it simply is not. You throw out Knight's testimony on the basis that he was not in a position to know everything about the translation. Well, neither was Whitmer.
Wrong. Whitmer’s touching or not touching the plates is only a contradiction if one assumes he was speaking about his vision both times.
And what good reason is there not to? You are simply appealing to speculation. You write:
"Of course, like Harris, Whitmer could have handled the plates on an occasion separate from his vision." - p89
In response I will quote you: wild speculation.
I made it appear contradictory to make a point about the Eight Witnesses.
You did an excellent job.
Remember, too, these statements were no transcriptions of Whitmer’s words, but reports by different reporters
So are you now resorting to the same tactics used by LDS apologists? Do you have proof he was misquoted?
As illogical as it is, I still understand your argument perfectly. I’m just trying not to be longwinded. Rather, you are trying to use Knight to supply the deficiencies you see in Whitmer’s statement.
Come on Dan. You wrote:
You are the one who quoted Knight as contradicting Whitmer.
To make that statement clearly illustrates a fundamental misunderstanding of the point I was making. I can only respond to what you actually write. Not what you meant to say.
Yes, you are being silly when you talk about “strong implications” that the other witnesses mean to say what Knight said, or that Knight “complements” them. You can’t use Knight to interpret the others, who had far more experience with the translation than Knight.
I'm not using Knight to interpret the others. I am saying Knight blatantly adds a detail that is implied by
and not contradicted by the others. But if you disagree, then show me something from the others that refutes Knight.
You only contest it, because if it were to stand you would have to either rule out your hypothesized Bible OR recognize that at least one of the witnesses was intentionally withholding key information. If Knight were to have simply added a benign detail, you would not be contesting it.
That’s not what I had in mind. Interested witnesses don’t automatically lie, either for or against. That’s too simple. It’s more like they provide a distorted lens into the past. This includes your Spalding witnesses.
Sure, but I have seen nothing from you to show that the word of the Spalding witnesses is in any way unreliable other than your conjecture that they suffered from false memories, because your theory demands it--despite Aron Wright's specific denial.
Ironically, I
have seen material from you showing that the testimony of David Whitmer contains "apparent contradictions" at least one of which you acknowledge may be "irreconcilable."
Again, I was talking about discrepancies between various interviews, not Whitmer contradicting himself. I’m afraid historically you are stuck with Whitmer and other witnesses testifying to the manner Joseph Smith translated the Book of Mormon.
Yes I understand that you don't want to blame Whitmer for his own contradictions. That is obvious at this point. Regardless, even allowing for the testified "manner Joseph Smith translated the Book of Mormon" allows room for another manuscript to enter the process at various points, whether or not Whitmer was aware of it.
1. You acknowledge that the stone was merely a prop. This means whenever the stone was in use, deception at some level was occurring. The stone was used as part of a show.
2. You acknowledge that Cowdery may have transcribed words from a Bible while Smith was away. If a Bible was used while Smith was away (a method completely different than what was described by witnesses you want to believe), other materials could have been used as well. Cowdery was not bound to follow Dan's logic.
3. You have yet to explain how you envision the "use of the stone" in conjunction with the Isaiah variants. I am still quite interested in how you conceive of that happening.
None of which can be supported by the eyewitnesses you otherwise rely on--except by their silence, which, last I checked, IS an argument from silence.
The fallacy of argument from silence doesn’t mean one can’t fill in gaps and offer interpretations for historical events. If everything came from sources and witnesses, we wouldn’t need historians. So I’m free to argue that a Bible would not have raised suspicions with the witnesses, but a MS would have, by way of explanation. But when you formulate an argument that Joseph Smith could have read from a MS despite the witnesses’ silence, because they also were silent about the use of the Bible, you have committed the fallacy of argument from silence. I’m trying to offer an explanation of something not explicitly addressed in the sources, but you are using the silence to form an argument.
No! Your whole argument hinges on the concept of what would and would not raise "suspicions." That argument is wholly dependent on who is and is not in the know. You
assume that Whitmer (for example) is simply an innocent dupe who would tell us the truth if anything "suspicious" managed to cross his field of vision (that is, when it wasn't otherwise under the influence of Joseph Smith's hypnotic suggestions! --which you also hold open as a possibility). Your argument
depends on that. You
assume the same for Cowdery.
And then from those huge assumptions you proceed to "fill in" speculative gaps as though your assumptions are not assumptions.
I am saying those basic assumptions are likely flawed from the get-go and you have no way of establishing them. Indeed the inconsistencies in their testimonies works against you.
BUT EVEN if we (generously)
grant those basic, unsupported assumptions, you
still can't rule out the possible use of other materials while simultaneously hypothesizing Bible use,
precisely because you agree that the stone was merely a prop. To quote someone you might know: I feel that I’m explaining the obvious, and I can’t believe you can’t see these things yourself. Embarrassing is the word that comes to mind.
In the first place you don't know that either Whitmer and/or Cowdery's sense of honesty would compel them to report facts that would diminish their Book of Mormon testimonies. In fact, the opposite seems more likely. It would seem that their sense of loyalty/devotion to Smith and the idea of new revelation would compel them to overlook anything that might work against the authenticity of the new revelation, much like a negative “confession” is considered lack of faith within the context of faith-healing meetings and should therefore be avoided.
This is what would allow them to ignore the use of a Bible
or any other source not in keeping with the official story.
In the second place you recognize that the stone was merely a prop but what is not clear is who you believe was aware of that. Would Whitmer have believed, like we do, that the stone was merely a prop? Probably not. He probably thought words were actually appearing in the stone. But you have no way of establishing that. You and I agree that nothing appeared in the stone. So, given the fact that you want to believe Whitmer's word on certain other points he makes, how do you mesh that with Whitmer’s assertions that words appeared in the stone? Like me, you choose NOT to believe his testimony in that regard, in favor of another explanation.
Best as I can tell, that explanation boils down to one of two options:
1. Whitmer was deceived
2. Whitmer was willing to provide supporting testimony whether or not it was actually true
How do you distinguish between elements in Whitmer’s testimony (or any witness) as being marks of deception or marks of statements made from devotion to the cause? At best, it seems arbitrary. We agree (I assume!) that Whitmer was either deceived or not being forthcoming when he claimed words appeared in the stone. I simply extend that to his assertion that a Spalding manuscript was not used. What good reason do you offer to justify drawing the line at the stone, and going no further?
False memory theory gives an explanation that doesn’t require me to accuse anyone of lying. Rather, it allows me to accept the Mormon testimony of multiple eyewitnesses, both friendly and unfriendly. If you want to know my position on the Spalding witnesses, read the long thread that discusses it.
This seems to be a tacit admission of what I have asserted on this thread: that false memory theory is appealed to more for convenience sake than for its explanatory power when applied to this specific scenario.
Without speculating about details, you need to acknowledge that variant readings imply use of the stone in some fashion.
Why do you refuse to share how you envision application of what you label "use of the stone" to the Isaiah chapters? I keep explaining that the stone was nothing more than a prop and you agreed.
You brought up the Bible as evidence that the stone wasn’t used for the entire Book of Mormon.
Wrong. The stone was merely a prop, Dan. Maybe if I repeat that enough it will sink in. I brought up the Bible to demonstrate that EVEN YOU agree that a source/method OTHER THAN what was explained by the witnesses YOU put faith in was OBVIOUSLY used. Your defense of Whitmer's silence on that question clearly illustrates that point. That causes
even you to speculate that Cowdery may have done some copying in Smith's absence.
This you saw as contradicting Whimter’s (actually Knight’s) claim of the whole Book of Mormon coming from the stone.
Because
it does.
Since Joseph Smith didn’t simply read the Isaiah from the Bible but made changes, it implies that the Bible was used as a translation aid
It does nothing of the kind. None of the witnesses say
anything ever about Bible use whether implied or otherwise! This is simply wild speculation on your part. You are asserting this contrary to the testimony of the witnesses, only you assert it is not contrary since no one ever explicitly asked them! And you do this on the asserted (but likely faulty) basis that
A. the witnesses would have informed us if anything fishy was going on
B. the use of a Bible was a trivial matter not worth mentioning because everyone knows the Book of Mormon quotes the Bible.
The very fact that changes were made supports the case the witnesses were trying to make: that the text given to Smith was revealed truth from God. But you are suggesting that God accomplished part of that by allowing Smith (or Cowdery) to copy the corrupt KJVB and then Smith would come back later and "use the stone" to correct the errors! Why go to all that trouble, when they allegedly had a good thing going where God just simply gives Smith the translation word for word (like the witnesses
actually claim!) and corrects mistakes before allowing the translation to proceed?
Of course the answer is because Dan has concluded that a Bible
was used! And if so, then how can Dan reconcile that with the Book of Mormon witness testimony? Well, lucky for Dan, Knight appears to be the only
eyewitness who claims "the whole" was translated with an urim and thummim and Dan is confident he can simply dismiss that on the basis of Knight's limited exposure. Dan therefore concludes he is safe to argue (from the silence of the remaining witnesses) that a Bible was used but was not mentioned because no one ever asked!
I think by now I get your argument. I just don't buy it.
However it was accomplished, it doesn’t put it in S/R territory.
And that, of course, is wrong, and is apparently what bothers you about simply admitting that some extra-BOM-witnesses-approved-methods were likely used.
No. That was not what I was referring to. You said you were familiar with the Spalding/Rigdon theory and still reject it. I therefore assumed you knew that I was referring to this: …
What I thought you were referring to is a better argument than this. But so be it. Aron Wright stating that the Spalding MS found is not the one he was referring to in 1833 hardly makes his original statement any stronger. If he was mistaken then, he was still mistaken later.
Nice attempt to avoid the point. The point you were trying to make was an appeal to false--but
sincerely false--memories as an explanation for the S/R witness statements. I just provided testimony from an S/R witness who
directly denies what you are attempting to diagnose from nearly two centuries down the road--and only because
it is necessary for your theory to work. YOU are the one asserting that Wright was mistaken. But when shown the
same evidence from which
you draw
your conclusion, Wright says no. Why should I believe you over Wright?
It’s been four years and I haven’t given the theory much thought since, so I might be a bit rusty. In that thread I argued: “that some of the witnesses saying that the lost tribes came out of Jerusalem was an indication that they were being influenced by the Book of Mormon.” The ten tribes didn’t come out of Jerusalem. They got that from the Book of Mormon. Dale wrote: “A final thought: Spalding may have written a lost tribes story that superficially resembled the Book of Mormon, but was not so close a match as some witnesses say. In fact the Mormons used to argue that very possibility in the years before 1884. It remains a largely unexplored option -- neither Mormons nor Spalding advocates having much use for such ideas in the wake of the Honolulu discovery.”
Well I agree. You're rusty. The problem with that, of course, is that you do not really confront the S/R theory as opposed to a caricature of it.
and that what is in the Book of Mormon was checked with the stone, or at least that was the claim.
Can you point me to
that specific claim?
I answered this above. Of course he doesn’t believe the Spalding MS is the one he remembered since he believes the Book of Mormon is it. Whether his memory is based on the Oberlin MS, or Spalding’s ten tribe MS as Dale suggested, false memory is at play since neither is the Book of Mormon.
You have an amazing ability to distort reality while "trying not to be longwinded." He
doesn't believe the Book of Mormon is "the one he remembered."
No one believes that. He believes the Book of Mormon is a plagiarism of "the one he remembered"
with a bunch of religious material added in.
And you have done nothing to confront his specific denial. If allowed to stand his denial
rules out a crucial element of your asserted explanation for the S/R testimonies. So, for polemical reasons, you simply assert that
he was mistaken! But you have no grounds on which to assert this other than your theory demands it and making use of false memory theory is convenient.
I stated this in my last post:
If you have some way of harmonizing Knight's testimony with the use of a Bible, I'm all ears.
You have no way of doing that. You simply assert that Knight did not witness the whole thing.
I wrote:
So, why should I believe the word of David Whitmer?
You have no good answer. You only allege that the "apparent contradictions" in Whitmer's testimony are the fault of his interviewers! Needless to say, I don't see that as a good reason to believe the word of David Whitmer.
I wrote:
I see no reason to accept any of it as anything more than "visions" brought about by blind devotion to a charismatic leader.
You have no rational response to that.
I wrote:
1. Earlier on this thread, you speculated that Cowdery may have copied from the KJVB when Smith was gone to Palmyra.
2. We both agreed that the stone was merely a prop. Therefore nothing came from the stone including variant readings.
3. Given that, we want to ascertain where the variant readings actually did come from.
4. Hence my reference to your earlier speculation. Do you wish to retract that speculation or do you still see it as a viable option?
5. If you wish to retract it or at least set it aside in favor of the idea that "the stone was used" to produce the variants, I will need you to be more specific about how exactly you think that occurred.
And you completely glossed over it. You either have no method in mind or you are reluctant to share it.
In response to this:
I believe it was Parley P. Pratt who said Joseph Smith used the stone to correct the Inspired Version.
I wrote:
Could you direct me to the Parley Pratt quote you mentioned?
So far I have not seen the quote, but I note that if this is the only evidence you appeal to as defining your earlier phrase "use of the stone," you are extrapolating backwards from the later Bible revision to explain a hypothesized earlier facet of Book of Mormon translation. I also note that in so doing you quote Pratt, which is interesting considering that your theory requires Pratt
not to have been involved in Book of Mormon production. But I'd still like to see the quote if you can find it.
"...a pious lie, you know, has a great deal more influence with an ignorant people than a profane one."
- Sidney Rigdon, as quoted in the Quincy Whig, June 8, 1839, vol 2 #6.