Marg,
Dan: Your attempt to connect Lehi to the lost tribes theory is illogical because the theory is based on Esdras, and Esdras says the tribes left a hundred years before Lehi was born.
Marg: Lost tribes dispersed around 720 B.C....Lehi & family migrated around 600 B.C. ..don't see a problem yet.
Maybe you should slow down and only answer when you have time. Whether you see it or not, your theory is contradicted by the evidence. The witnesses said they remembered Spalding’s MS explained the origin of the Indians, that they were descended from the lost tribes, and that the Book of Mormon was the same as Spalding’s MS. The problem is that Lehi wasn’t descended from the lost tribes, because they were gone into a far-away country “where never mankind dwelt” a hundred years before he was born.
Whatever is in the Book of Mormon is irrelevant, witnesses were recalling Spalding's book. And if you are right, then there was no reason for the witnesses to mention "lost tribes" based on exposure to the Book of Mormon.
You contradict yourself here. How can the content of the Book of Mormon be irrelevant when your witnesses are testifying it was the same as Spalding’s MS? Either the witnesses are accurately recalling Spalding’s MS, and therefore it was not like the Book of Mormon, or they are mistaken about Spalding’s MS, and therefore can’t be relied on anyway. More likely, the witnesses’ memories were tainted by what they thought the Book of Mormon was about based on popular misconceptions about its contents.
Spalding apparently was not religious..so the Bible was not authoritative to him.
Why couldn't he have a story..which begins with the dispersal of the 10 tribes in 720 B.C. or even mention his characters in 600 B.C. were descendants of lost tribes from the 720 B.C. group. I don't see the problem with this. Even now, the speculation is where did the lost tribes go and who are their descendants. Is the theory limited to lost tribes migrating to only one spot in the world..and they couldn't possibly have dispersed to different areas? If so why?
The ten tribe theory is based on the passage in Esdras, which says they traveled over land and water for a year and a half into a far-away region, and eventually into a land called Arsareth. What actually happened and what legend says happened can be separate things. Even when the Book of Mormon rejects the ten tribe theory of Indian origins, it maintains the legend by having them in an unexplored region of the earth. The question for you is: why would Spalding reference the ten tribe theory for Indian origins, but then depart from the passage that inspired the theory in the first place?
One of the witnesses Mckee said Spalding had the 10 tribes migrate to China... fight amongst themselves and the surviving group join forces and went north to Bering str and over to America. Maybe spalding worked backwards adding more stories going back to 720 B.C. as he was with McKee later than the other witnessses. But none of the witnesses were concerned that Spalding's story was about a small group migrating to America and associated with the lost tribes. And yet , if everyone back then was so fanatically rigid in their beliefs and couldn't deviate from a one only lost tribes theory which involved a mass migration in 720 B.C. to one area in the world ..how is it they have no problem with a different storyline? The focus of the story was to write a story about the first people's in America which also explained Am. Indians. So why couldn't a few descendents from the 720 B.C. lost tribes mythical story ..end up being part of Spalding's tale in which they migrate to America.
McKee also made his statement much later than the other witnesses. A more likely explanation is that the witnesses were confusing both the Book of Mormon and Spalding’s MS with the ten tribe theory. In other words, they believed the Book of Mormon was about the lost tribes and that corrupted their memories about Spalding’s MS, which wasn’t about the ten tribes either.
Dan: Shifting to a southern migration, which had no biblical support and ran counter to expectations, would have served no purpose. In doing so, he would have lost the authority upon which the theory was based.
Marg: I thought the lost tribes myth wasn't even in the Bible. I have no idea what you are talking about "he would have lost the authority" MCB can you help make some sense out of this for me?
The Apocrypha was included in Bibles at Joseph Smith’s time, but was being questioned and eventually removed. What I’m saying here is what I said above when I asked the question: why would Spalding reference the ten tribe theory for Indian origins, but then depart from the passage that inspired the theory in the first place? The authority for believing the Indians were descended from the ten tribes was the passage in Esdras. If Spalding wrote in this genre, he would not have chosen a southern migration a hundred years later. Joseph Smith could do that, but Spalding wouldn’t have, that is, if he wrote in the ten tribe genre.