Mittens wrote:The Bible is very clear Jesus is God also. That's why the Book of Mormon agrees with the Creeds of the 4th and 5th century , it was written by a professor of these creeds
1. “To those who through the righteousness of Our God and Savior Jesus Christ,” 2 Peter 1:1
Emphatic Diaglott
2. “The glorious appearing of our Great God and Savior, Jesus Christ,” Titus 2:13 Emphatic Diaglott
Ah, yes, a naïve appeal to Granville Sharps. Get a better translation.
Mittens wrote:3.”Keep watch over yourself and all the flock of which the Holy Spirit has you overseer. Be shepherds of the Church of God, which he bought with his own blood.” Acts 20:23 New International V
I think you mean Acts 20:28, and that's only one way to read the Greek. Also, there are many very early variants that read "the church of the Lord," "blood of his son," etc. Nowhere in the entire New Testament is the notion found that God's own blood purchased the Church.
Mittens wrote:4.”Theirs are the patriarchs, and from them is traced the human ancestry of Christ, who is God over all forever praised amen” Romans 9:5 King James
That's not the KJV, it's the NIV. A better translation is "who is blessed of God over all."
Mittens wrote:5.”The life appeared, we have seen it and testified to it, and we proclaim to you the Eternal Life, which was with the Father and has appeared to us.” 1 John 1:2 King James and we are in him who is the true even in his son Jesus, He is the True God and Eternal Life,” 1 John 5:20 King James
Again, that's the NIV, which is an utterly atrocious translation. Compare to John 17:3. It's that we might know "him who is true," namely God, through Jesus.
Mittens wrote:6.”In the beginning, was the WORD, and the WORD was with GOD and the WORD was GOD Himself.” John 1:1 Amplified Version
Another atrocious translation, but even Daniel Wallace acknowledges here that it is not equating Jesus and God. Rather, it's a qualitative equation.
Mittens wrote:7.”And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness; GOD was manifested in the flesh.” 1 Timothy 3:16 King James
The word "God" does not appear in the Greek, and there's more than one way to translate this.
Mittens wrote:8.”and Thomas answered and said to him “ My LORD and my God,” Jesus said to him :Thomas because you have seen me you have believed,” John 20:28 King James
This is about the closest you can actually come in the New Testament to promoting the Trinity, but even here it's not identifying Jesus as God, it's just identifying him as a god (specifically the Thomas'). The rhetoric of this passage appears to have escaped you.
Mittens wrote:9.”for in him dwells all the fullness of the GODHEAD BODILY,” Colossians 2:9 King James “GODHEAD” {Greek-Theotetos}. In Thayers Greek page 288; The state of being God
Yeah, that's not what θεότητος means. It just means "divinity." You have to presuppose that God exhausts the category of divinity to insist it means "the state of being God," but you can't even begin to show that.
Mittens wrote:10.”who although being essentially one with God and in the Form of God {possessing the fullness of the attributes which make GOD GOD} did not think this equality with God was a thing to be grasped or retained.” Philippians 2:6 Amplified version
"Being essentially one with God" does not appear in the Greek at all, and the word that is translated "form" simply refers generically to physical form.
Mittens wrote:11.”Nor let us tempt Christ, as some of them also tempted, and were destroyed by serpents.” 1 Corinthians 10:9 King James
And?
Mittens wrote:12.”No one has seen God {referring to the Father} BUT GOD the One and Only, who is at the Fathers side has made him known.” John 1:18 New International {Jehovah GOD was seen many times by the people, so in them cases it couldn’t be the Father, {had to be Jesus who was seen and called Jehovah.
Or it can just be the anti-anthropomorphic inconsistency that everyone acknowledges it is. Also, your translation up there has nothing to do with the Greek. Where are you getting this garbage?
Mittens wrote:“Moses and Aaron, Nahab and Abihu, and seventy of the Elders went up and saw God of Israel under his feet was something like pavement made of sapphire, clear as the sky it self, but God did not raise his hand against these leaders of Israelites, they saw God, and they ate and drank,” Exodus 24:9-11
“at this point the men turned from there way to Sodom but as for JEHOVAH he was standing still before Abraham….then JEHOVAH went his way when he had finished speaking to Abraham.” Genesis 18:22-33 New World Translation Genesis 18:2 says three men appeared to Abraham, two are identified as angels {Genesis 19:1} ONE IS IDENTIFIED AS JEHOVAH GOD Genesis 18:1,3,13,14,17,20,22,26,27,31,32 and 33
For more on anthropomorphism and its mitigation in the editing of the Hebrew Bible, please see my Oxford master's thesis, "Anti-anthropomorphism and the Vorlage of LXX Exodus."
Mittens wrote:the biblical use of the word "firstborn" is most interesting. It can mean the first born child in a family (Luke 2:7), but it can also mean "pre-eminence." In Psalm 89:20, 27 it says, "I have found David My servant; with My holy oil I have anointed him...I also shall make him My first-born" (NASB). As you can see, David, who was the last one born in his family was called the firstborn by God. This is a title of preeminence.
No, this is an adoption formula that is parallel to the procreation metaphor in Ps 2:7. בכור means "firstborn." Read the Septuagint translation. For more, see the discussion in Peppard, The Son of God in the Roman World, 105-06.
Mittens wrote:Gen. 41:51-52, "And Joseph called the name of the first-born Manasseh: For, said he, God hath made me forget all my toil, and all my fatherï's house. And the name of the second called he Ephraim: For God hath made me fruitful in the land of my affliction" (NASB)
Jer. 31:9, "...for I am a father to Israel, and Ephraim is My firstborn (NASB)."
I don't see what you're getting at here. Jer 31:9 is using a familial metaphor.