I have a question wrote:It's not a translation issue, it's a credibility issue.
The book is claimed to have been written by Mormon quoting and abridging ancient Prophets and adding some content, followed by his son adding some content. All of which was done 421AD or earlier. If it contains content that dates to later than that, then the book is t what it claims to be. Period.
zerinus wrote:Wrong. It doesn’t “contain content that is later than that.” The content is contemporary to the time period it was written. It is the translation of the content that you are quibbling about. It is therefore a translation issue, not a content issue.
Gosh, how can zerinus say that when he doesn't have:
(a) The supposed ancient original text in front of him (which was supposedly in 'Reformed Egyptian', no?)
and:
(b) An ability to understand what the original text was saying, independent of the English of the current Book of Mormon.
Absent both of those, there seems no reasonable basis for asserting that obvious signs in the text of ignorance of olive cultivation (such as the lack of reference to oil production, or being disappointed when olives prove to be bitter) is the result of a translation problem rather than being simply there in a text originally written in English by someone who didn't know about olive cultivation.
NO WAIT!!! I get it. Zerinus has a non-negotiable spiritual witness that the Book of Mormon is a translation of a real ancient text, translated by the gift and power of God. Thus he is quite sure that the original of Jacob 5 has the text of a sermon delivered in the 6th century BC by someone who really did know all about olive cultivation. So if the present English Book of Mormon text seems to have been written by somebody who does not know about olive cultivation, that must be a translation problem.
Do I have that right? So it all depends on whether or not zerinus's assertion of his personal revelation is to be accepted by others. I don't see why it should be ... and if he can't explain why it should be, he simply has no argument worth presenting to others.
(Teensy problem of course: we are told that the translation was done by a seer stone, are we not? And the accounts of that stone suggest that it gave the translation word by word to Smith who then dictated it. So how can there be any mistakes in such a translation?)