The Origin and Literal Fatherhood of God

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_Coggins7
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Post by _Coggins7 »

On what basis do you claim to know that "God, the Person,[your] Heavenly Father" has flesh and bones, was once mortal and is now immortal?

The above post does not make an argument based in evidence, it merely makes a baseless claim--a testimony of sorts. What is the evidence of this claim?



Infallible revelation to a fallible mortal being. Is this not the crux of your entire criticism of LDS truth claims?
The face of sin today often wears the mask of tolerance.


- Thomas S. Monson
_amantha
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Post by _amantha »

Coggins7 wrote:
On what basis do you claim to know that "God, the Person,[your] Heavenly Father" has flesh and bones, was once mortal and is now immortal?

The above post does not make an argument based in evidence, it merely makes a baseless claim--a testimony of sorts. What is the evidence of this claim?



Infallible revelation to a fallible mortal being. Is this not the crux of your entire criticism of LDS truth claims?


Yes it is.
_Coggins7
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Post by _Coggins7 »

Gadianton wrote:Cog isn't wrong to have a speculative thread. The philosophical part of philosophical discussions are so precisely for the fact that empirical evidence (or spiritual witnesses) can't answer the questions. But it would seem as if, rather than presenting us with a "philosophical" thread, Cog has simply outlined Mormon God mythology. Perhaps he can articulate for us why an infinite regress of God's is a great solution to the problem of origins, being, or whatever, when virtually every other philosopher would see an infinite regress as symptomatic of a poor answer to a question or a frustrating aspect of metaphysics or language that's not easy to shake, rather than something to write home about as an astounding solution to a problem.



1. The problem of ultimate origins is not resolvable either philosophically or scientifically. At some point, and end point is reached, a "beginning" which begs the question of what came before that beginning. No matter how far we push this conceptually, we end with an infinite regress of leading edges on into the past with a black box lying immediately behind. The Gospel does not "solve' any philosophical problems here except in the sense that it removes the concept of "beginning" from the equation by transferring conceptualizations, with some reservations, normally reserved for our understanding of the "future" to the past.

In Gospel cosmology, we have no "beginning" but a past that moves onward (or backward, from our perspective) without and end point or demarcation line beyond which existence, qua existence, can be said not to exist. That is, beyond which, there is an absolute void having no features or attributes from which any coherent reality could be derived. The term "beginning" is only understandable as the initiation or expansion of of an already existing reality; the plan of salvation continues on into the infinite future as this cosmos, and other cosmoses, are expanded, enlarged, or newly generated, all for the purpose of "bringing to pass the immortality and eternal life of man.

Neither universes such as our own, human beings, gods, angels, or devils (children of God at their lowest level of development, or devolution) have ever not existed; they, and existence itself as a phenomena, is eternal--not infinite--but eternal, without beginning or end.

This doesn't solve the philosophical problems inherent in such conceptions, but it is not intended to. The intention, as with all things revealed through the spirit of revelation, is to explain and settle certain concepts in the minds of God's children so that hey can understand the setting they are in and take their bearings upon the universe; it is to situate them in the universe ; to contextualize their existence as individuals within the context of a general understanding of the plan of salvation. The eternal nature of the plan is important for a sense of the vast cosmic continuity of the plan of salvation and its relation to each individual.

If any problems are solved, it is the problem of the traditional Christian conception of man as a de novo creation that had no antecedents and no inherent beingness outside of God's creative activity, which is understood not as bringing coherence and higher order organization out of chaos, but out of a transcendent metaphysical nothingness.

The idea of an endless past brings a vast, illimitable sense of continuity between myself and other children of God that have existed in worlds, galaxies, and universes unfathomably far removed from this one, and yet connected by a familial relation of which we can be a part through the sealing power.

I'll end here for now.
The face of sin today often wears the mask of tolerance.


- Thomas S. Monson
_charity
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Post by _charity »

amantha wrote:
On what basis do you claim to know that "God, the Person,[your] Heavenly Father" has flesh and bones, was once mortal and is now immortal?

The above post does not make an argument based in evidence, it merely makes a baseless claim--a testimony of sorts. What is the evidence of this claim?


Joseph Smith actually saw God the Father and Jesus Christ. Many other people actually saw Jesus. First person testimony. You know, the kind that stands up in a court of law.
_harmony
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Re: How Is Reliability Determined in any Venue?

Post by _harmony »

JAK wrote:harmony,

What is the methodology for determining reliability? I disagree with your challenge to amantha in that reliability has to have transparency. Absent that, we have nothing.

Just how is “spiritual” anything demonstrated to be reliable? Your emotional reaction – do you see that as “spiritual”?

You have made some fine posts, so my disagreement is not intended to be any kind of personal attack but rather raises questions about just how one or many can evaluate reliability.

If "spiritual" has been extablished, how was it estalished? It seems another word for emotional. How is it different?

JAK


None of your comments have anything to do with man's progression to godhood, which is the subject of this thread. ALL of your comments are an attempt to derail this thread.
_Coggins7
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Post by _Coggins7 »

Therefore, it can be concluded that the King Follet discourse and all its attending concepts are stripped of any evidentiary basis. The spiritual witness is not evidence. An experience, as such, is not evidence to the individual self (due to the fallibility of the human interpretive faculty) nor to others.[/b]


They are only stripped of an evidentiary basis if one assumes a naturalistic world view in which empirical evidence is the only accepted basis of evidence.

I said:
Very well, and I will take the position that your cardinal point, that of human infallibility, though obviously true and pedestrian, is, as a general metaphysical mediating principle (the manner in which you have used it before) self negating, as it must logically pertain to your own claims of human infallibility. Or, in other words, if human claims are always suspect, then blanket claims of human fallibility are themselves suspect as general claims.



Agreed. Thus ALL human claims, including those wherein the individual believes to have received an undeniable witness ALL fall under the umbrella of uncertainty. Again we agree that uncertainty is the common element of our experience, including the interpretation of internal experiences.


Not quite. All I'm pointing out here is that if we take your position that infallibly is the central delimiting factor in the reliability of the LDS witness, then that factor must delimit all other claims to certain knowledge. Since you hold to the belief that the LDS assertion of a sure testimony of the truth cannot be valid because of this inherent, overarching fallibility, your own claim regarding human fallibility must be fallible, and hence, might be mistaken. There may be areas of human perception open to infallible knowledge, or the natural limitations can be suppressed to levels at which such knowledge as LDS claim to receive from God can be impressed upon us without impermissible levels of filtering.

I'm not accepting your nihilism here, only pointing it out.


Can we? Uncertainty seems to be the commonality in both of our arguments. Therefore it would be better to deal in probabilities, not certainties.[/b]


No, uncertainty, as I pointed out above, is a matter both of inherent human limitations and the self negating argument regarding you made in your original post. You have made a claim of absolute certainty by stating that infallible communications from God are not possible under any circumstance or set of conditions, so you cannot now claim to be dealing only in probabilities when you have dealt, from the very beginning, with certainty in that you have attached claims of complete certainty to your assertions of uncertainty regarding the doctrine of personal revelation.

I said:

This argument promises more than it delivers. This is really a complex series of inferences, predicated on some unmentioned assumptions, that is masquerading as a deductive argument, which, if followed to its conclusion, would be unassailable. However, key assertions being made here, such as that a fallible being, even if receiving infallible communications, must return to fallibly, and hence, garble the infallible communication, are pure assumptions about aspects of both human and divine nature and power that involves the argument, as stated, in deep question begging. The invitation of the Latter Day Saint to "come and see" for yourself, is intended, quite frankly to plow through questions such as this that really cannot be fleshed out in a purely philosophical manner and go directly to the source. One says "very well, I'm going to see for myself if this infallible being can make contact with an infallible being and whether or not that being can communicate with me in a manner that, while not removing general fallibility from my nature, in essence relegates it to background noise within the confines of direct communicaiton of the Spirit of God to the intelligence of a child of God".




Your claim that you are receiving a direct communication from the Spirit of God is based in your belief that you can infallibly know that you have received a direct communication from the Spirit of God. You would like to claim that you have solved this inherent paradox by cutting a gordion knot with you spirit witness claim, but are you certain that there are not other explanations for your experience? If you claim certainty, you claim infallibility. Are you infallible?


I am certain that there is no other explanation, yes. And I am not infallible, as a general rule. The universe, however, is full of exceptions to general rules, and how many might there be of which we know nothing?

I assume only that human beings are fallible. The probability of this is very high. The nature of a reality which is described as god can only be claimed if an infallible communication can be had between fallible humans and god. Is god infallible? How do you know it? Can you claim certainty that god is infallible? If so, you are making a claim about yourself first and your conception of "god" second.


The probability is very high, yes, which must imply that the probability is very high that your belief in the fallibility of human beings in the case of the principle of revelation (a principle which you must admit, you can know nothing, having never experienced it), might by quite fallible, or, in other words, unreliable.

Do I know God is infallible? Yes. How? Because I know he exists, I've experienced his power, love, and nature, and have nor reason to doubt the attributes ascribed to him in the scriptures or by his servants.

Are you claiming that it is wrong to assert that humans are fallible. Is that a logically inconsistent claim?[/b]


No. I'm saying that it is wrong to make such a claim a transcendent principle that admits of no weak links or boundaries with which it itself is conditioned and limited. The logical inconsistency lies in your making infallible claims to a knowledge of the fallibility of the claims to knowledge of others while you have already asserted the fallibility and uncertainty of any such statements you might make.


I claim that humans are fallible. You claim to infallibly understand a "mediating principle" which originates "in the spiritual realm." Which claim needs to have its bounds, conditions and dynamics defined? The highest probability is that you believe you understand the experience, which you characterize as mediated by a spiritual arbiter, because your culture provided you with the terms and ideologies which led you to interpret your experience in this way. This is true because you cannot infallibly know that you have interpreted your experience correctly.


This repeats some of your original points, but does not engage my critiques of them. First we should deal with how you can know of my infallibility in this particular area (my testimony) when the entire basis of your position is based upon the fallibility and uncertainty of your own knowledge. If you are uncertain about my testimony, then how could you ever know whether I was certain regarding it? How do you know your claims to ultimate uncertainty are not anything more than a perceptual box you have put yourself in through a sophisticated personal logical and lingusitic intellectual exercise that may have little validity outside of its own intellectual confines?
Last edited by Dr. Sunstoned on Wed Feb 13, 2008 9:16 pm, edited 4 times in total.
The face of sin today often wears the mask of tolerance.


- Thomas S. Monson
_amantha
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Post by _amantha »

charity wrote:
amantha wrote:
On what basis do you claim to know that "God, the Person,[your] Heavenly Father" has flesh and bones, was once mortal and is now immortal?

The above post does not make an argument based in evidence, it merely makes a baseless claim--a testimony of sorts. What is the evidence of this claim?


Joseph Smith actually saw God the Father and Jesus Christ. Many other people actually saw Jesus. First person testimony. You know, the kind that stands up in a court of law.


Do you accept everyone's first person testimony? Why or why not? First person testimony, after all, stands up in court.

The answer is that, of course, you do not. You must first establish the credibility of the witness. On what basis are the witnesses for the actuality of Jesus and the notion that Joseph Smith actually saw "God the Father and Jesus Christ" found to be credible?
_JAK
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Distinction Absent Difference

Post by _JAK »

amantha wrote:JAK asked:
How or can we make a meaningful distinction between religious claims and superstitious claims?


I see no way to make meaningful distinction. There are superstitious claims made outside of religion and within it. It is a distinction without a difference.


Exactly so, amantha.

It is “a distinction without a difference.”

Unless or until someone is capable of demonstrating a difference, the burden of proof for the claim is not met.

JAK
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Re: How Is Reliability Determined in any Venue?

Post by _JAK »

harmony wrote:
JAK wrote:harmony,

What is the methodology for determining reliability? I disagree with your challenge to amantha in that reliability has to have transparency. Absent that, we have nothing.

Just how is “spiritual” anything demonstrated to be reliable? Your emotional reaction – do you see that as “spiritual”?

You have made some fine posts, so my disagreement is not intended to be any kind of personal attack but rather raises questions about just how one or many can evaluate reliability.

If "spiritual" has been extablished, how was it estalished? It seems another word for emotional. How is it different?

JAK


None of your comments have anything to do with man's progression to godhood, which is the subject of this thread. ALL of your comments are an attempt to derail this thread.


Of course they do. What’s “godhood”?

Absent clarification of that you are not on a rail. Your train has no track.

You beg the question: What’s “godhood”?

That requires extensive detail. You cannot merely pretend that everyone is a mindreader or has a clear view of what you or anyone else is talking about.

The comments are exactly on target and refer to exactly words which you use.

You fail (as all appear to fail) to offer definitions of merit and clarity.

JAK
_Coggins7
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Post by _Coggins7 »

And yes, JAK, you should begin discussion the subject matter of the thread, as should Amantha. Even though I've responded to both, the we have already moved away from the OP.
The face of sin today often wears the mask of tolerance.


- Thomas S. Monson
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