You see, I have also -- repeatedly -- made it clear that I'm certain that Joseph Smith didn't have a clue -- in the conventional sense -- as to how to "translate" the Reformed Egyptian of the Book of Mormon plates.
This is beyond dispute.
He could not, for example, have pointed to a leaf and said, "There's Alma giving his lecture on faith."
But that is pretty much what he did. When presented the papyri for the first time he immediately translated some of the portions and gave his audience an idea what they were about. There was no prayer or seer stone session involved. His analysis was off the cuff, proving he wanted people to think he could translate the language.
He produced revealed text. Yes, he termed it "translation." But it wasn't.
Of course it was. That is what translation means. Whenever you take language X and turn it into language Y, it is a process of translation only if the end product Y properly expresses what was understood by the person who wrote it in X. Joseph Smith claimed to be doing precisely that. He never hinted or suggested that his translation wasn't necessarily a direct translation from the Egyptian characters on the papyri. Only an idiot would try arguing this way.
Not in the sense that you people want to use the term.
"You people" includes every Mormon on the planet before Nibley had to come up with this crazy apologetic in the 60's. And even today most LDS would agree with us. Smith claimed to be able to translate the Egyptian from the papyri into English.
How he did it, or by what means he claimed he could do it, is really irrelevant since we know he couldn't do it successfully by
any means.
When I make the claim that Joseph Smith never claimed to translate Egyptian -- I mean it in the sense that he himself never pretended to be a conventional translator of languages. He was doing something entirely different; entirely unique.
But we know he had no ability to translate, either conventionally or otherwise. The end product still has to meet the test of scrutiny, which is why you are desperately trying to distance the end product from what we already know was the source. You need there to be a mysterious document missing because you know perfectly well that without its existence, you're screwed. So you just insert it into the debate without teh slightest shred of evidence that it ever existed. You have no choice but to do this because otehrwise your entire faith system crumbles. The end product clearly proves Smith had no ability, conventional or supernatural, to properly translate Egyptian to English. His screwed up "translations" from the facsimile is definitive proof of this.
“All knowledge of reality starts from experience and ends in it...Propositions arrived at by purely logical means are completely empty as regards reality." - Albert Einstein