Response to Jockers, Criddle, et al., Now Available

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_Roger
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Re: Response to Jockers, Criddle, et al., Now Available

Post by _Roger »

Ben:

"There are some significant differences for many of these though, Dale."

Take the Book of Mormon as a translation of the now "lost" Gold Plates. It is a text that remains. Because it remains, we can discuss its contents and compare it. This is not the same as the mythical Manuscript Found of which we don't have so much as a single unique identifiable word or phrase. Apart from which, we do have a manuscript that seems to be the Manuscript Found. The only accounts that disagree with that identification are in fact that same polemical statements attacking the Book of Mormon.


This is the first actual defense of your position I can remember seeing. So let's see how logical it is....

You argue that what makes your hypothesized, non-extant items credible is that a text that we "can discuss its contents and compare it" remains, whereas that is not so with S/R's hypothesized manuscript.

Sounds reasonable. But is it?

The fact is that your theory suggests what remains was originally embodied in what is hypothesized, with some (even many?) phrases possibly being superimposed by the language of Joseph Smith. Our theory, suggests basically the same thing: that what remains was also originally embodied in what is hypothesized, with some (major) additions primarily by Sidney Rigdon and Joseph Smith.

There is not a whole lot of difference there except with respect to how much additional material came from Smith and others and what was the original source. There is certainly nothing there, however, from which you can justifiably claim superiority for your theory! In fact, as we consider more factors, your theory begins to encounter serious problems that do not encumber ours.

1. The alleged language of your hypothesized manuscripts (because in order for your theory to be correct there would have to have been more than one manuscript at some point--yet none of them exist today which is greater weakness for your theory right there) also does not remain. In fact, there is no evidence that such a language ever existed. There is no known document that uses the same language. There are no known characters for this language. By contrast, the language of our hypothesized manuscript is English, and specifically the King James style, which is actually what we find in the Book of Mormon text that remains.

2. There is no evidence that the alleged writers of your hypothesized manuscript(s) ever existed. There is no evidence that any of their descendants ever existed. There is no evidence any of their cities ever existed. By contrast, the writer of our hypothesized manuscript not only existed, he was an actual writer of manuscripts. He was known to write in the English language. He lived in real cities, in a real house and had relationships with real people.

3. The materials your hypothesized manuscripts were allegedly preserved on (metal plates) are far more durable than ours (paper). It would stand to reason that metal plates would be much more difficult to destroy. These plates were alleged to have existed not only in ancient America but also in New York state in 1829. They no longer exist. Why not? I'd like you to explain that one so I am not accused of misrepresenting your theory.

By contrast (to whatever your theory holds as the reason your hypothesized manuscripts no longer exist), our theory has a perfectly rational, and quite logical reason to suggest why our hypothesized manuscript no longer exists: because Joseph Smith would have a keen interest in making sure it no longer exists. Simply placing it in the fire is all it takes, and the evidence is gone.

4. What you argue as a strength for your theory, in reality is actually a glaring weakness. All you have to "compare" the Book of Mormon to is itself. You can't compare the Book of Mormon to your hypothesized ms's because they don't exist. Neither, of course can we. HOWEVER, it doesn't end there. By contrast, S/R has ANOTHER manuscript written by the same author who allegedly wrote our hypothesized manuscript. This is actually a huge difference and one that not only typically gets overlooked, but, ironically, the overlooking of that fact is what then allows you to erroneously claim superiority! The fact is, since you actually have NOTHING to compare to the Book of Mormon, your theory does not have to face any potential criticism that such a comparison might generate. You erroneously (and quite egregiously) see this as a strength to your own theory when it is nothing of the kind. It must always be kept in mind that no one can critically compare the Book of Mormon to your hypothesized manuscript precisely because not only does it not exist, but neither does there exist ANYTHING else by even one of your theory's alleged authors that we can compare to the Book of Mormon.

5. And this is where it really gets interesting.... after failing to acknowledge the aforementioned glaring weakness from the get-go, you then want to tear apart the actual parallels that--surprise, surprise!--we actually do find when we compare the Book of Mormon with our actual manuscript that DOES exist and we CAN compare to the Book of Mormon. And what response does that elicit from you? Those parallels are nothing! I can come up with hundreds like them! But, of course, you can't precisely because these parallels are not like any of the hundreds you can come up with because these parallels were written.... drum roll please... by the same author OUR theory says wrote the hypothesized manuscript! Let's not forget, your theory can't even offer a manuscript by ANY of your alleged authors from the get-go! But you can bet if you could, and if it had parallels to the Book of Mormon you would be claiming them as evidence in support of your theory as opposed to arguing that you can find hundreds more just like them!

So, when it comes right down to it, there are indeed differences, but those differences work against your theory and in favor of S/R when compared on an equal footing. I would say fatally so for your theory.

The Book of Lehi, on the other hand is well documented, as well as accounts (which may or may not be accurate) of its destruction. I don't think anyone questions its existence.


?? Are you serious? You can only be referring to the lost 116 pages, I assume. But that is NOT the book of Lehi. It's merely 116 modern pages claiming to be a translation of the the book of Lehi.

The problem, Dale, isn't really in any of this. The problem is that you are clearly frustrated by the fact that we don't even have a fragment of your missing manuscript. It isn't an issue you can defend.


Why would we expect to find a fragment? That Joseph Smith would have an interest in destroying our hypothesized manuscript is what our theory predicts. I would NOT expect our hypothesized manuscript to still exist unless a copy managed to escape Smith's attention--and I doubt that happened.

Your theory has to assume that such a manuscript existed - but, since you cannot defend that assertion, perhaps you feel the need to suggest that we ought not to be critical of it merely because we believe in documents that no longer exist as well.


No. Not correct. We don't have to assume anything. We have multiple eyewitnesses telling us it did exist and claiming they were exposed to it, some prior to 1816 and others in 1833-34. So then, we should compare the statements of the witnesses of the Book of Mormon with those of the witnesses for the Spalding manuscript and compare for credibility. I have been having an interesting discussion with Dan Vogel on that very subject. Dan wrote an entire essay explaining why there are "apparent contradictions" between the written statements of the 3 and 8 Book of Mormon witnesses and their later accounts. And yet, for some odd reason, he still wants me to believe them--even though he agrees with me there never really were any ancient plates.

The fact is, your theory has to assume ancient plates existed and the witnesses who testify to it are not very credible witnesses.

We may well believe in such things - but clearly, it is not something that helps your case.


Of course it does! This is yet another area in which you are simply wrong. If YOUR theory is eliminated from the mix of possible explanations, then there is one less theory to contend with.

And not all of the opponents of a Spalding/Rigdon theory have such a situation. Vogel, for example, does not believe in these missing things either (except perhaps as modern creations).


Sure, but Vogel's theory has it's own problems as my conversation with him on this thread illustrates. He is extremely reluctant to divulge how he envisions the Isaiah plagiarisms coming about. He acknowledges that a King James Bible was used but is (intentionally) ambiguous about how he envisions that happening. The reason for that, I am sure, is that he understands that whatever method he might come up with potentially opens the door to other materials his theory says could not have been used.

He says he can safely conclude that a Bible was used (but nothing else) since none of the witnesses ever denied it, since no one thought to ask. But you know as well as I do that Knight claimed "the whole" came from the urim and thummim and the others strongly implied the same thing. I'm pretty sure I could pull a Skousen quote or two to back me up on that.

He says he can rule other materials out because Bible use would not have raised suspicions while a manuscript would have. On that point, Vogel seems to be as willing as you are to believe whatever the witnesses tell us, (which I still find ironic). But then he is forced to conclude that virtually every other possible parallel came from the public awareness rather than actual plagiarism. (I'm sure you agree with that, but I don't think it's that simple.)

So sure, Vogel's position gets around reliance on either your hypothesized manuscripts or S/R's one hypothesized manuscript. But his acceptance of plagiarism from a KJVB opens the door to other possible sources including S/R's--whether he wants to admit that or not--and explains why he is generally unwilling to speculate how a Bible may have been used while acknowledging that one probably was.

And so we get back to the argument about the angel. But this comparison doesn't make the Spalding theory any better, it doesn't make it convincing, and it gets a little tiresome hearing this litany when it has absolutely no bearing on the question of whether the Spalding/Rigdon theory can stand up to scrutiny.


It has bearing, Ben, and I think you are smart enough to know that. We're trying to answer the question of how the Book of Mormon got here. It may be a slight oversimplification, but it basically boils down to three main competing answers to that question. In short, we can simply call them: Ben's answer, Dale's answer and Dan's answer. If we eliminate Ben's answer, then we are left with Dale's vs. Dan's. Simple math.

For you to keep making these kinds of statements comes across more as a reflection of the weakness of your own arguments than anything else.


I have just demonstrated that when things are placed side by side, your theory has the least real-world support. in my opinion, Dale was politely attempting to remind you that you should not revel too much in the stones you can throw from your own glass house.

Yes, for the umpteenth time, we S/R advocates publicly acknowledge that our hypothesized manuscript is not extant. Yes, we acknowledge that is a weakness we are forced to deal with. The thing is we do deal with it. We can rationally explain why it no longer exists, and the explanation is one any rational human being can understand and agree with the logic.

That is simply not the case for your theory's explanation of why your hypothesized manuscripts do not exist.

Yes we acknowledge Dan's position has the luxury of not having to defend the existence of a hypothesized manuscript. But Dan DOES have to explain HOW he envisions a Bible was used and why he draws the line at the Bible and nothing more. So far, I am not satisfied with his answer, and there is nothing he has stated so far to make me think his answer is superior to S/R's. If anything his answer is too simplistic to actually explain the BOM--and you and I might even agree on that!

All the best.
"...a pious lie, you know, has a great deal more influence with an ignorant people than a profane one."

- Sidney Rigdon, as quoted in the Quincy Whig, June 8, 1839, vol 2 #6.
_GlennThigpen
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Re: Response to Jockers, Criddle, et al., Now Available

Post by _GlennThigpen »

Roger wrote:These witnesses can't win either way. If they mention something in or similar to the Book of Mormon you claim that is where it came from. If not, then you claim they are at odds with each other. The fact is you refuse to take their statements at face value. That is a choice you are free to make, but you have done nothing to show any good reason not to simply accept their statements.

Show me something that would lead us to believe they were pathological liars, conspirators or rabid anti-Mormons.


Roger, in my discussions with marge, I have shown that four of the witnesses stated that Spalding in his story was attempting to show that the American Indians were descendants of the Lost tribes of Israel that had been exiled to Mesopotamia when they were conquered by the Assyrians around 722 BC. He was to trace their journey "by land and sea" to the Americas. All eight of the witnesses stated that the historical parts of the Book of Mormon read the same as that of Spalding's story. Aron Wright went so far as use the word verbatim.

Yet there is no lost tribes motif in the Book of Mormon. This leads to a bit of cognitive dissonnance. If you take the witnesses at their word that Spalding's romance was about the lost tribes and that the historical part of the Book of Mormon is the same, identical, verbatim, etc. as the Book of Mormon then there should be a lost tribes motif in the Book of Mormon, but there is not and the witnesses are not credible. But if you do not take them at their word, then the witnesses are not credible.

roger wrote:It's not a cop out, Glenn, its just a fact. The fact is LDS scholarship is decidedly pro-LDS (which is pretty much anti-S/R by definition). All I am saying is: that apologists conclude against S/R is no surprise.


Roger, I am not even talking about scholarship aimed at the Rigdon/Spalding theory. I am talking about scholarship on the Book of Mormon text, such as the Royal Skousen critical text project, the work by John Welch on chiasmus in the Book of Mormon, the work on the text which indicates a semitic origin for the Book of Mormon. To disregard it is to lose by default.

glenn wrote:I am not talking about similarities or parallels. I am talking about literary expressive ability.


roger wrote:Show me how the latter third of Alma exceeds Spalding's prose when it comes to "literary expressive ability."


You have read the Oberlin Manuscript and ask that question?

I don't recall any LDS, especially Bruce, has been claiming that his extensions to the Jockers methodology proves that Rigdon and Spalding had nothing to do with the Book of Mormon authorship.


roger wrote:Do I need to pull the quotes? When you claim Bruce's study indicates that "none of the above" was the author of the Book of Mormon, that's pretty much "claiming that his extensions to the Jockers methodology proves that Rigdon and Spalding had nothing to do with the Book of Mormon authorship."


Since when does "indicates" equal "prove"?

glenn wrote:It does rate the chances as statistically very low.


roger wrote:Which is good to hear you acknowledge. According to people smarter than me there is a reason for that. My basic common sense concurs.


That makes no sense.

roger wrote:It's not the math I disagree with.


Then you shouls be able to articulate a coherent, evidence based objection?

glenn wrote:I am not hanging my hat entirely on that either. As I mentioned, there is much more. Any of the scholarship that you care to dispute is there for you to find an expert to challenge for you if you cannot do so yourself.


roger wrote:Math is most certainly not my thing.


The scholarship I have mentioned has very little math. Much like adding two plus two, for the most part.

The thing I have stated before, but doesn't seem to get through to you, is that even if the Jockers study proves to be fatally flawed (which it hasn't and I don't think it will) it would only prove that the method is flawed.


Bruce disagrees with you there.

roger wrote:It would say nothing about who did or did not write the Book of Mormon. My reasons for thinking S/R best explains the Book of Mormon existed before Jocker's study came out. They still exist.


You are half correct there. Along with Bruce's extensions, it would not indicate who did write the Book of Mormon but it would say something about who did not write the Book of Mormon.
I do understand where you are coming from. But those reasons seem to exist in spite of the science and scholarship that has been brought Old Testament bear on the subject.

Glenn
In order to give character to their lies, they dress them up with a great deal of piety; for a pious lie, you know, has a good deal more influence with an ignorant people than a profane one. Hence their lies came signed by the pious wife of a pious deceased priest. Sidney Rigdon QW J8-39
_GlennThigpen
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Re: Response to Jockers, Criddle, et al., Now Available

Post by _GlennThigpen »

Roger wrote:1. The alleged language of your hypothesized manuscripts (because in order for your theory to be correct there would have to have been more than one manuscript at some point--yet none of them exist today which is greater weakness for your theory right there) also does not remain. In fact, there is no evidence that such a language ever existed. There is no known document that uses the same language. There are no known characters for this language. By contrast, the language of our hypothesized manuscript is English, and specifically the King James style, which is actually what we find in the Book of Mormon text that remains.


Roger, in another post I mentioned scholarship that you have not bothered to read on the Book of Mormon. We do not know just what the "reformed Egyptian Characters" might be, but there are several known scripts that can be considered "reformed Egyptian". Not saying that one of them was the Book of Mormon language, just that the practice was not unknown. However, research has shown a lot of evidence that the Book of Mormon text has semitic, as in Hebrew and Egyptian roots. Also, you seem not to be aware of Royal Skousen's work indicating that the Book of Mormon is not written in King James English, seventeenth century, but in fifteenth century English.

I am afraid that your limited knowledge base leaves you at a disadvantage on this subject.

Glenn
In order to give character to their lies, they dress them up with a great deal of piety; for a pious lie, you know, has a good deal more influence with an ignorant people than a profane one. Hence their lies came signed by the pious wife of a pious deceased priest. Sidney Rigdon QW J8-39
_Uncle Dale
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Re: Response to Jockers, Criddle, et al., Now Available

Post by _Uncle Dale »

Benjamin McGuire wrote:...
What would it take to convince you of this?
...



It's not a matter of what will convince me of one thing
or another. Every day of my life I have seen the sun
appear in the east -- but perhaps tomorrow it will rise
in the west. All I can go on is experience and reason.

So forget what I think -- or what I believe.
Concentrate upon presenting facts.

Either it is possible to use textual analysis to present a
compelling case for Joseph Smith having written the
"Preface" to the 1830 book; or it is not. Either it is
possible to present convincing textual studies showing
that Oliver Cowdery wrote the two statements of the
witnesses for that book; or it is not.

If such basic authorship facts cannot be demonstrated
by computerized textual study -- through quantitative
data tabulation -- then the entire authorship quest
can be consigned to mere speculation and opinion.

At least we know Isaiah wrote the Isaiah chapters;
Malachi wrote the Malachi chapters, etc.

Perhaps that is all that can ever be known for certain.

UD
-- the discovery never seems to stop --
_Roger
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Re: Response to Jockers, Criddle, et al., Now Available

Post by _Roger »

Glenn:

Roger, in another post I mentioned scholarship that you have not bothered to read on the Book of Mormon. We do not know just what the "reformed Egyptian Characters" might be, but there are several known scripts that can be considered "reformed Egyptian". Not saying that one of them was the Book of Mormon language, just that the practice was not unknown. However, research has shown a lot of evidence that the Book of Mormon text has semitic, as in Hebrew and Egyptian roots. Also, you seem not to be aware of Royal Skousen's work indicating that the Book of Mormon is not written in King James English, seventeenth century, but in fifteenth century English.

I am afraid that your limited knowledge base leaves you at a disadvantage on this subject.


I'm sorry Glenn but this tactic is really annoying. In the first place you don't know what "scholarship" (as if using that title alone gives it some sort of divine authority) I have or have not "bothered to read." In the second place, even if you did somehow magically know that, it is irrelevant. What Roger knows or does not know is irrelevant. Like Dale says, show us facts. If YOU think there is something YOU know that I don't that is in some way a game-changer, then by all means share it. But don't just assume I haven't been exposed to it before this conversation and then proceed to lecture me about the alleged disadvantage that supposedly places me in.

The fact is I have seen articles about the characters and while I can't read your mind (like you erroneously think you can read mine) I'm guessing I've probably seen the specific one(s) to which you now refer. This admission says it all:

We do not know just what the "reformed Egyptian Characters" might be


That, my friend, is what all the "scholarship" on this topic boils down to. The day you can definitively show me a "reformed Egyptian alphabet" is the day you can lecture me about my alleged "disadvantage." Instead what we have is a lot of speculation about what a reformed Egyptian language might have looked like. Sure, you can produce a lot of speculation that it might be something along the lines of demotic, etc. But anyone can speculate about anything. In the end it is nothing more than speculation.

I can show you a pretty good argument on why some of it is likely Irish shorthand. And you would tell me that argument is pure speculation.

Not saying that one of them was the Book of Mormon language, just that the practice was not unknown.


Notice how when you try to argue on this point you are forced to use disclaimers? There is a reason for that.

You can't tie the hypothesized plates, the hypothesized alphabet, the hypothesized language, the hypothesized people, the hypothesized cities in which they supposedly lived to ANYTHING in the real world. That is simply a fact. And yet you want to lecture us about how supposedly weak our theory is because it relies on one hypothesized manuscript.

However, research has shown a lot of evidence that the Book of Mormon text has semitic, as in Hebrew and Egyptian roots.


The day you have a consensus of non-LDS scholars agreeing that that is evidence of the book's claim to being ancient, is the day you will have my attention.

Also, you seem not to be aware of Royal Skousen's work indicating that the Book of Mormon is not written in King James English, seventeenth century, but in fifteenth century English.


Which proves/demonstrates/indicates nothing.
"...a pious lie, you know, has a great deal more influence with an ignorant people than a profane one."

- Sidney Rigdon, as quoted in the Quincy Whig, June 8, 1839, vol 2 #6.
_GlennThigpen
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Re: Response to Jockers, Criddle, et al., Now Available

Post by _GlennThigpen »

glenn wrote: I am afraid that your limited knowledge base leaves you at a disadvantage on this subject.


Roger wrote:I'm sorry Glenn but this tactic is really annoying. In the first place you don't know what "scholarship" (as if using that title alone gives it some sort of divine authority) I have or have not "bothered to read." In the second place, even if you did somehow magically know that, it is irrelevant. What Roger knows or does not know is irrelevant. Like Dale says, show us facts. If YOU think there is something YOU know that I don't that is in some way a game-changer, then by all means share it. But don't just assume I haven't been exposed to it before this conversation and then proceed to lecture me about the alleged disadvantage that supposedly places me in.


Maybe I should have said "your apparent limited knowledge base". I notice that you did not engage on the two points (of many more possible) that I made about the scholarship I am alluding to.

roger wrote:The fact is I have seen articles about the characters and while I can't read your mind (like you erroneously think you can read mine) I'm guessing I've probably seen the specific one(s) to which you now refer. This admission says it all:


glenn wrote:We do not know just what the "reformed Egyptian Characters" might be


roger wrote:That, my friend, is what all the "scholarship" on this topic boils down to. The day you can definitively show me a "reformed Egyptian alphabet" is the day you can lecture me about my alleged "disadvantage." Instead what we have is a lot of speculation about what a reformed Egyptian language might have looked like. Sure, you can produce a lot of speculation that it might be something along the lines of demotic, etc. But anyone can speculate about anything. In the end it is nothing more than speculation.

I can show you a pretty good argument on why some of it is likely Irish shorthand. And you would tell me that argument is pure speculation.


So, now you are reading my mind????

glenn wrote:Not saying that one of them was the Book of Mormon language, just that the practice was not unknown.


roger wrote:Notice how when you try to argue on this point you are forced to use disclaimers? There is a reason for that.

You can't tie the hypothesized plates, the hypothesized alphabet, the hypothesized language, the hypothesized people, the hypothesized cities in which they supposedly lived to ANYTHING in the real world. That is simply a fact. And yet you want to lecture us about how supposedly weak our theory is because it relies on one hypothesized manuscript.


The S/R theory is weak not just because of one hypothesized manuscript. It is weak for a host of reasons, especially in the evidence department. The Book of Mormon translation theory, the existence or not of the plates, etc. is not what we are discussing here.

glenn wrote:However, research has shown a lot of evidence that the Book of Mormon text has semitic, as in Hebrew and Egyptian roots.


The day you have a consensus of non-LDS scholars agreeing that that is evidence of the book's claim to being ancient, is the day you will have my attention.


So now we need a consensus? Why would you accept that when a consensus of non-LDS scholars rejects the Spalding/Rigdon theory.

glenn wrote:Also, you seem not to be aware of Royal Skousen's work indicating that the Book of Mormon is not written in King James English, seventeenth century, but in fifteenth century English.


roger wrote:Which proves/demonstrates/indicates nothing.


If you can demonstrate that Joseph Smith, Oliver Cowdery, Parley P. Pratt, Sidney Rigdon, or Solomon Spalding were conversant with fifteenth century English, maybe not. Else one would expect that the style of the Book of Mormon would be in seventeenth century English like the Bible, with which they would be familiar.

Glenn
In order to give character to their lies, they dress them up with a great deal of piety; for a pious lie, you know, has a good deal more influence with an ignorant people than a profane one. Hence their lies came signed by the pious wife of a pious deceased priest. Sidney Rigdon QW J8-39
_Roger
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Re: Response to Jockers, Criddle, et al., Now Available

Post by _Roger »

Glenn:

Maybe I should have said "your apparent limited knowledge base".


It certainly would have left you more wiggle room, but it would still be irrelevant.

I notice that you did not engage on the two points (of many more possible) that I made about the scholarship I am alluding to.


What two points?

I can show you a pretty good argument on why some of it is likely Irish shorthand. And you would tell me that argument is pure speculation.

So, now you are reading my mind????


No just predicting your response based on your current arguments coupled with my own past experience with other LDS.

The S/R theory is weak not just because of one hypothesized manuscript. It is weak for a host of reasons, especially in the evidence department. The Book of Mormon translation theory, the existence or not of the plates, etc. is not what we are discussing here.


And that of course is where you are dead wrong. You can't simply proclaim S/R to be weak while standing on a much weaker platform.

The day you have a consensus of non-LDS scholars agreeing that that is evidence of the book's claim to being ancient, is the day you will have my attention.

So now we need a consensus? Why would you accept that when a consensus of non-LDS scholars rejects the Spalding/Rigdon theory.


Because I am not a Hebrew-Semitic scholar, Glenn. So far as I am aware, neither are you.

With regard to "a consensus of non-LDS scholars rejects the Spalding/Rigdon theory" I don't need to be a Hebrew scholar to understand why people like Vogel reject the S/R theory. My conversation with him on this thread demonstrates that for the most part his rejection of S/R boils down to bias (in favor of Book of Mormon witnesses and against S/R witnesses) and convenience.

If you can demonstrate that Joseph Smith, Oliver Cowdery, Parley P. Pratt, Sidney Rigdon, or Solomon Spalding were conversant with fifteenth century English, maybe not. Else one would expect that the style of the Book of Mormon would be in seventeenth century English like the Bible, with which they would be familiar.


All right, let's go with this. How does this play out from the perspective of your theory? Tell me what you are arguing here. You allege that neither Smith nor Cowdery nor Rigdon nor Pratt would have had access to a Bible that featured "fifteenth century English"?
"...a pious lie, you know, has a great deal more influence with an ignorant people than a profane one."

- Sidney Rigdon, as quoted in the Quincy Whig, June 8, 1839, vol 2 #6.
_GlennThigpen
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Re: Response to Jockers, Criddle, et al., Now Available

Post by _GlennThigpen »

glenn wrote:The S/R theory is weak not just because of one hypothesized manuscript. It is weak for a host of reasons, especially in the evidence department. The Book of Mormon translation theory, the existence or not of the plates, etc. is not what we are discussing here.


Roger wrote:And that of course is where you are dead wrong. You can't simply proclaim S/R to be weak while standing on a much weaker platform.


Whatever platform I am standing on is irrelevant to the strength or weakness of the S/R theory.

glenn wrote:So now we need a consensus? Why would you accept that when a consensus of non-LDS scholars rejects the Spalding/Rigdon theory.


roger wrote:Because I am not a Hebrew-Semitic scholar, Glenn. So far as I am aware, neither are you.


You don't have to be a Hebrew, Egyptian, or Semitic scholar to note what the claims are and check those claims against what is known about those languages.

roger wrote:With regard to "a consensus of non-LDS scholars rejects the Spalding/Rigdon theory" I don't need to be a Hebrew scholar to understand why people like Vogel reject the S/R theory. My conversation with him on this thread demonstrates that for the most part his rejection of S/R boils down to bias (in favor of Book of Mormon witnesses and against S/R witnesses) and convenience.



Roger, that does not make sense. Dan notes why he thinks that the S/R witnesses are not credible and has had to look elsewhere for his explanations. It seems that you are saying that none of the non-LDS scholars who reject the S/R theory do so because they have actually looked at the evidence, but reject it merely because they are biased in favor of their own theories. Maybe those non-LDS scholars could not find the lost tribes in the Book of Mormon either.


glenn wrote:If you can demonstrate that Joseph Smith, Oliver Cowdery, Parley P. Pratt, Sidney Rigdon, or Solomon Spalding were conversant with fifteenth century English, maybe not. Else one would expect that the style of the Book of Mormon would be in seventeenth century English like the Bible, with which they would be familiar.


roger wrote:All right, let's go with this. How does this play out from the perspective of your theory? Tell me what you are arguing here. You allege that neither Smith nor Cowdery nor Rigdon nor Pratt would have had access to a Bible that featured "fifteenth century English"?


I am arguing that the King James version of the Bible is written in seventeenth century English. The King James version of the Bible was by far the most widely read Bible nineteenth century America. (I do not have a source for this right now, but if you desire, I will look it up if you care to dispute it.) And that if any of those name were to have written the Book of Mormon and attempted to emulate the biblical style of writing, it would have reflected the King James influence.

Glenn


Edited to add, I do have a source:
http://gratefultothedead.wordpress.com/2011/01/10/the-king-james-bible-in-america/
Last edited by Guest on Tue Mar 01, 2011 9:41 pm, edited 1 time in total.
In order to give character to their lies, they dress them up with a great deal of piety; for a pious lie, you know, has a good deal more influence with an ignorant people than a profane one. Hence their lies came signed by the pious wife of a pious deceased priest. Sidney Rigdon QW J8-39
_MCB
_Emeritus
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Re: Response to Jockers, Criddle, et al., Now Available

Post by _MCB »

What if the language of the Book of Mormon is just KJE laid on with a broom instead of a spray-gun???
Huckelberry said:
I see the order and harmony to be the very image of God which smiles upon us each morning as we awake.

http://www.vatican.va/archive/ccc_css/a ... cc_toc.htm
_GlennThigpen
_Emeritus
Posts: 583
Joined: Wed Apr 09, 2008 5:53 pm

Re: Response to Jockers, Criddle, et al., Now Available

Post by _GlennThigpen »

MCB wrote:What if the language of the Book of Mormon is just KJE laid on with a broom instead of a spray-gun???



What if Joseph Smith had an iphone?

Glenn
In order to give character to their lies, they dress them up with a great deal of piety; for a pious lie, you know, has a good deal more influence with an ignorant people than a profane one. Hence their lies came signed by the pious wife of a pious deceased priest. Sidney Rigdon QW J8-39
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