Book of Mormon and Bible - identical quotes...

[_Tobin]

And the fact that it shows up in 3 Nephi proves it was copied straight from the KVJ. Remember, Jesus didn't speak Greek.

I never claimed that Jesus spoke Greek.

[_Buffalo]

And the fact that it shows up in 3 Nephi proves it was copied straight from the KVJ. Remember, Jesus didn't speak Greek.

I never claimed that Jesus spoke Greek.

No, but the translation in KVJ is an artifact of a Greek idiom.

[_Tobin]

I never claimed that Jesus spoke Greek.

No, but the translation in KVJ is an artifact of a Greek idiom.

And you have proof of that I suppose (like you have substantiated anything else you have stated)? How would you express what Jesus said in Aramaic? I'm very interested in knowing since you seem to think you know what you are talking about.

[_Themis]

There is nothing to address. It is your opinion that Jesus did not say those exact words. If you can find another early original greek version that has different words, please let me know. Until then, it is just your opinion.

You are missing the point. There is no original.

[_Buffalo]

And you have proof of that I suppose (like you have substantiated anything else you have stated)? How would you express what Jesus said in Aramaic? I'm very interested in knowing since you seem to think you know what you are talking about.

You said it yourself - the KJV translation was word for word, not meaning for meaning.

[_Tobin]

There is nothing to address. It is your opinion that Jesus did not say those exact words. If you can find another early original greek version that has different words, please let me know. Until then, it is just your opinion.

You are missing the point. There is no original.

Ok, let me make this even easier then. Can you provide a CFR to any early copy of Matthew in Greek that uses different words at all in this instance?

[_Tobin]

And you have proof of that I suppose (like you have substantiated anything else you have stated)? How would you express what Jesus said in Aramaic? I'm very interested in knowing since you seem to think you know what you are talking about.

You said it yourself - the KJV translation was word for word, not meaning for meaning.

I did. You were the one that claimed it was a Greek idiom in which the KJV is a word-for-word translation into English. That assumes that it is not also exactly the same idiom in Aramaic as well. If it is different, I would like to know in what way and how it would be expressed in Aramaic then?

[_Themis]

Ok, let me make this even easier then. Can you provide a CFR to any early copy of Matthew in Greek that uses different words at all in this instance?

You are still missing the point. What is the earliest text we have of this event? When was it written, and by whom? The point again is that we don't have any original text from the event itself. This means the KJV has no real chance of being an accurate description of what Jesus would have said. That the Book of Mormon copies the KJV does not do well for it's claims of being a record of another event in which Jesus was repeating what he said in Jerusalem.

[_Buffalo]

You said it yourself - the KJV translation was word for word, not meaning for meaning.

I did. You were the one that claimed it was a Greek idiom in which the KJV is a word-for-word translation into English. That assumes that it is not also exactly the same idiom in Aramaic as well. If it is different, I would like to know in what way and how it would be expressed in Aramaic then?

I don't speak Aramaic or Greek. However, idioms are almost always exclusive to the language in which they originated. "Cut me some slack, Jack" would be meaningless translated literally into any other language.

[_Tobin]

Ok, let me make this even easier then. Can you provide a CFR to any early copy of Matthew in Greek that uses different words at all in this instance?

You are still missing the point. What is the earliest text we have of this event? When was it written, and by whom? The point again is that we don't have any original text from the event itself. This means the KJV has no real chance of being an accurate description of what Jesus would have said. That the Book of Mormon copies the KJV does not do well for it's claims of being a record of another event in which Jesus was repeating what he said in Jerusalem.

I understand that, but I think you are missing the point that we don't have any copies (at all) that support your contention. Even if you were right, and there were multiple written originals - where are the copies of those originals to support your position? As far as I know, they don't exist. Since all the early copies of Matthew agree on this verse, I think we can be pretty certain it is accurate.