maklelan wrote:LittleNipper wrote:The Ishmaelites were descendants of Ishmael who was born to Abraham by Hagar.
That's the folk etymology developed by the editors of the patriarchal narrative, but that's not where Ishmaelites actually came from.
LittleNipper wrote:Ishmael had to separate from Abraham and go across the Jordan. God prospered him, and after several generations the Ishmaelites had grown to a large enough group where they became involved with trade. The Midianites were also descendants of Abraham by Keturah who Abraham married after Sarah died (Gen. 25:1).
I thought you said they were the same people. Again, the patriarchal narrative account is a folk etymology. It's made up. Not all Arabian peoples are descended from one many who lived in the second millennium BCE. Good heavens, you really could use a history class or two.
LittleNipper wrote:And one of Keturah's sons was Midian. So Midian was a half-brother to Isaac, and Midian was also a half brother to Ishmael.
And they became completely distinct national identities.
LittleNipper wrote:Their lines were apparently intermarrying with the result that the terms Midianites and Ishmaelites were beginning to be used interchangeably.
No, that's the concept you have to invent in order to make the problems with the Joseph account go away. You're absolutely flagrantly begging the question.
LittleNipper wrote:And so in writing of this, Moses used the terms interchangeably.
Then why did the Midianites sell Joseph to the Ishmaelites, who took him down to Egypt, only to have the Midianites take him down to Egypt a few verses later? Your juvenile eisegesis has to get cranked up to eleven to make those facts go away.
LittleNipper wrote:Perhaps the Midianites were the ones who arranged the buying and selling of Joseph.
And now you're making guesses as to how your invented scenario could still play out instead of just letting the facts stand.
LittleNipper wrote:The Midianites are described as merchants in Genesis 37:28. And, in reading Genesis 39:1 and the second part of Genesis 37:28, it seems clear that the Ishmaelites physically carried out the transport and sale of Joseph. Both tribes were responsible and accountable for the sale of Joseph.
Wait, you just said they were interchangeable. Now they're different tribes? So you have two separate tribes with specific names, but the author can arbitrarily switch their names with no reason in view? DO you imagine that people reading this crap are nine years old? How infantile does someone have to be to believe this?
LittleNipper wrote:Whether there were two caravans traveling together, one of Ishmaelites and another of Midianites, or whether there was one caravan consisting of both Ishmalites and Midianites, or whether the caravan consisted of Midianites only, there is no contradiction in the passage.
Well, sure, if you ignore what the text actually says and are allowed to just invent facts and scenarios to plug in wherever you have a contradiction, you can make anything look like it's consistent. If a person is an adult, though, they know that that's just manipulating the text to make it say what you want.
LittleNipper wrote:When the Midianite traders passed by, the brothers sold Joseph to them.
Nope. The text explicitly says that the Midianites took Joseph out of the pit and sold him to the Ishmaelites. The brothers had absolutely nothing whatsoever to do with it, provided you actually care what the text says.
LittleNipper wrote:Joseph himself said that it was the brothers who had sold him.
Yes, because that text relies upon narrative 1 instead of narrative 2. You can't say there's no contradiction because another part of the text contradicts. That's just asinine.
LittleNipper wrote:In any event, Genesis 37:28 mentions both tribal names in connection with the sale of Joseph.
Yes, because the Midianites sold Joseph to the Ishmaelites in one of the narratives.
LittleNipper wrote:And that alone undermines any claim of contradiction.