Jason15 wrote:And Yes Mittens your are right there is only ONE TRUE GOD.
The Bible tells us that there is only one God in all existence (Isaiah 43:10; 44:6,8).
Please see
here. Here's the condensed version:
Michael Heiser, I believe, has the best treatment available of the rhetorical function of the so-called monotheistic sections of Deutero-Isaiah and Deuteronomy (found here). To paraphrase (and expound a little), Deutero-Isaiah is not denying the ontological existence of other deities; rather, he is denying their efficacy and legitimacy. The language used by Deutero-Isaiah and Deuteronomy (“I am and there is no other,” “there is none beside me,” etc.) is also used in reference to Babylon, Moab (Isa 47:8, 10), and Nineveh (Zeph 2:15). The vernacular is placed in the mouths of Israel’s opponents, but the point is clear: these cities are not denying the existence of other cities, but rather that they are at all relevant in comparison (see Ps 89:6 and Isa 40:25). Deuteronomy 32 provides further indication that this is the correct reading. In v. 21 YHWH states, “They made me jealous with a non-god (בלא־אל) . . . so I will make them jealous with a non-people (בלא־עם).” The nation being referenced (Assyria-Babylon) is not one that does not exist, but one that is inconsequential in the eyes of YHWH. That this is part of the same propaganda is supported by v. 39 (ואין אלהים עמדי) and by Isa 40:17: “All the nations are as nothing (כאין) before him, he considers them as less than nothing (מאפס) and deserted (ותהו).”
That the authors of this rhetoric in no way deny the existence of other deities is also made clear by the proximity of explicit mentions of other gods. Deut 32:8–9 and 43, for instance, mention the sons of El and command “all the gods” to bow before YHWH, respectively. In Deut 4:19 the gods of the nations are explicitly said to have been established by YHWH for the worship of the people of those nations. Divine council imagery is also present in Isaiah 40 and 45.
Jason15 wrote:However, it also mentions "other gods." For example there is Adrammelech and Anammelech (2 Kings 17:31), Asherah (1 Kings 18:19), Baal (Judges 3:7), Chemosh (Num. 21:29), Dagon (1 Sam. 5:2), Molech (Lev. 18:21; 20:2-5), etc etc etc. The Bible is not contradicting itself. When the Bible speaks of other gods it is speaking of "false gods" that have no true existence.
Then why does it call upon them to worship YHWH? Why does it say God himself gave them rule over the nations? Why does it suggest YHWH was defeated in battle by Chemosh? Why does it suggest YHWH and El were originally separate deities? Why does it refer repeatedly to the demonstrably non-human "sons of God' (a Hebrew idiom meaning "gods")?
Jason15 wrote:Gal. 4:8 says, "Formerly, WHEN YOU DID NOT KNOW GOD, you were slaves to those who by nature are NOT gods." See also, Isaiah 37:19 and Jeremiah 2:11. God tells us that he alone is the true God and that all of the invented gods of man do not exist except in their own minds. So, we can see that the Bible is not contradicting itself regarding how many gods there are in existence. There is only one.
You're begging the question and cherry-picking proof-texts.
Jason15 wrote:Note: in the verses in Genesis that have God saying "Let us make..., Let us go down . . . , etc." are clues to the Trinitarian nature of God. God is a Trinity of persons: a Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. There are not three Gods, but one. There are those who insist that the Trinity is polytheistic. But it is not. Trinitarians believe in a single being who is God.
How come that notion took hundreds of years to develop after the death of Christ? There's no evidence whatsoever that Gen 1:26 refers to the trinity.
Jason15 wrote:I guess the Book of Mormon does teach heresy....2 Nephi 31, Alma 11, Mormon 7 of course we know they will take it out of context and say some thing ridiculous like one in purpose or something equally out of context, even thought that is a far stretch for the theme and context of the Bible as a whole. One God means One God........The Holy God is not the author of confusion and would say purpose if that was His intent.
If he's not the author of confusion then why did it take people about a thousand years to figure out that Gen 1:26 was actually talking about the trinity? How come no one ever came up with that idea prior to around the fourth century CE? Why are there so many different ways to read any given text of the Bible if it's so perspicuous?